Romans 8:29-30 — Can there be someone who was justified but not glorified?

ὅτι οὓς προέγνω, καὶ προώρισεν συμμόρφους τῆς εἰκόνος τοῦ υἱοῦ αὐτοῦ, εἰς τὸ εἶναι αὐτὸν πρωτότοκον ἐν πολλοῖς ἀδελφοῖς: οὓς δὲ προώρισεν, τούτους καὶ ἐκάλεσεν: καὶ οὓς ἐκάλεσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδικαίωσεν: οὓς δὲ ἐδικαίωσεν, τούτους καὶ ἐδόξασεν. (https://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0156%3Abook%3DRomans%3Achapter%3D8%3Averse%3D29)

Hello, these questions arose from a grammatical/linguistic dispute on a recent post that I made.

Does the Greek in Romans 8:29-30 exclude the following reading: "29 For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the first-born among many brethren. 30 And those whom he predestined he also called; and those whom he called (and predestined, per the previous verse) he also justified; and those whom he justified (and predestined and called, per the previous verse) he also glorified."?

Is it true that ‘there cannot be a justified person who was not also glorified’? Is Paul referring to a group of people who were predestined; every member of which was justified and glorified; yet still allowing for there to be some justified people, but who were not glorified (since they were not predestined)? In other words, does Paul consider anyone who is justified by God to also be glorified, or is he speaking only of a subset of the justified, and stating that they will be glorified due to their predestination, in Romans 8:30?