If ""From the river to the sea, Palestine will be free" is a call for genocide",

Why isn't advocating for a one-state solution controlled by Israel also a call to genocide?

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Is it because Arabs are more likely to commit genocide than Jews? Is it that less than 20% of Arabs in the 1947 borders for Israel remained, thus making the expulsion of the other 80% not "real" ethnic cleansing?

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The original Zionists did not beleive in partition. Even the 1947 parttion was seen as a step to all of Palestine under Zionist control. If advocating for a one-state solution controlled by Israel is a call to genocide, than were the original Zionists advocating genocide?