Why don't states submit their electoral votes directly to avoid faithlessness?
Well, I'm not a US citizen but I am currently reading about the US constitution.
I know that electoral college is always a never-ending argument, however, my question isn't about it's a good or bad rule.
My question is: as it is the standing rule for election, why don't states submit their electoral votes directly to avoid faithless elctors? Why shall they appoint someones who may betray them while the requested purpose is to reflect the state's majority? So, if the popular vote in Texas is for republicans, it's official that there are 38 votes for republicans.
Posted Dec 1, 2023, 11:27 PM UTC
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