Confused about recent GHSV1 study. Conflicting information around transmission even with an established OHSV1 infection. Thoughts?

I just got diagnosed with ghsv1 3 weeks ago and have been consumed with learning as much as I can. I came across a recent study from 2022 I’ve seen some people talk about in the subs in regard to GHSV1 shedding rates and how it’s very unlikely to acquire GHSV1 if you already have the ohsv1 antibodies. However- this study confuses me bc it’s saying the opposite. Or am I reading this wrong?

https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/36272098/

I noticed in the study it mentioned :

Design, setting, and participants: Persons with laboratory-documented first-episode genital HSV-1 infection, without HIV infection or current pregnancy, were referred for enrollment.

Exposures: First-episode genital HSV-1 infection.

Results: Among the 82 participants, the median (range) age was 26 (16-64) years, 54 (65.9%) were women, and 42 (51.2%) had primary HSV-1 infection. At 2 months, HSV-1 was detected from the genital tract in 53 participants (64.6%) and in the mouth in 24 participants (29.3%).

So my question is: if only 51% of patients had a primary hsv1 infection, does that mean 49% of the patients that experienced a primary ghsv1 outbreak already had establish antibodies (most likely ohsv1) and developed it in another second location???