ELI5: Why was Rupert Murdoch never accused of interfering in foreign elections?

It sure seems like his media empire influenced elections in the US, UK and Australia at the very least... and he wasn't a citizen of all three. I often see accusations of foreign countries interfering in the elections of other countries and this being treated as a big deal... yet nobody seems to accuse Murdoch of doing the same. Is it because he wasn't explicitly government-affiliated or something else entirely?