Is the propensity of Catholics to use the term "sodomy" recently just an online thing?

It seems as though no one who I talk to is aware of this, but the Church does not teach this term generally. It's completely missing from the Catechism, and this is not a coincidence. My only guess is that because many theologians throughout history use it, armchair online theologians like to add it to their lexicon. But it's incredibly frustrating because it's not an accurate or well defined term.

First off, it does not have consistent meaning between theologians who use it. It is sometimes used to describe generally sexual relations between two gay men regardless of what specific actions are occurring during that encounter. It is sometimes used to describe anal sex specifically. And Ligouri uses it I believe on one occasion to describe any sex that is not PIV (meaning oral sex as foreplay between a married couple is sodomy.) This means that in one case it can only apply to gay people sexually interacting, in another it can apply to anyone but simultaneously not apply to lesbians or gay men who refrain from anal sex, and in another can apply to even married couples who refrain from anal sex.

Needless to say, there's no coincidence that the Church hasn't been using this term, because it's nebulous and not accurate. It was invented as a term much later, yet many people falsely assume it is sourced in scripture. But specific homosexual relations nor anal sex are mentioned during the listings of the sins of sodom in the old testament books that define it's sins. "Sexual Immorality" is as specific as it gets, and it's a stretch to say this is specifically referring to any one act ALONE.

I honestly associate use of this word with American Evangelicals. So what's with the sudden use I'm noticing online of Catholic's using this word as if it's theologically accurate? It's like seeing someone bring up Meyers-Briggs as a valid personality measure when discussing psychology. It sticks out like a sore thumb.