how did the vedas originate?

the origin and sanctity of vedas is backed by 4 claims:

• vedas are the origin of language(thats why they are God's language)

• vedas as inherently meaningful (svatah pramanya) and don’t need interpretation

• seers are pure receivers

rishis are not authors and access vedas by tapas and have no intention to corrupt

• apaurusheyatva

vedas are only seen not authored

I found a paradox when you take all these together tho:

• you need a seer to receive the vedas the first time in every kalpa

• but prior to vedas there is no speech and no differentiation into concepts

• so you can’t posit the existence of the seer prior to language and hence prior to vedas

Any claim about the seer is already downstream of what it tries to ground. Can you tell me if there is any mistake in this reasoning?