Rash with no clear etiology and multiple failed treatment modalities. Derm saying to wait a year and re-assess.

Demographics: 30M, 6’2”, 240lbs Diagnoses: hypertension, atopic dermatitis, anxiety Meds, prescription: amlodopine 5mg, escitalopram 20mg || meds I have trailed for chief complaint: topical ketoconazole, triamcinolone cream 0.1%, halobetasol cream, meds, non prescription: urea cream 40% + 2% salicylic acid, daily multivitamin, Flonase daily,

In short, I have had a rash to the heels x 8 months. Initially the rash was bilateral and MARKEDLY pruritic. However, now the rash in no longer itchy, or painful and has only lasted on my left heel. No clear antecedent event. I have a history of atopic dermatitis that is well controlled and usually isolated to the flexoral creases of the wrists and elbows.

After 4 months, made an appointment with a dermatologist who diagnosed me with “frictional dermatitis” and instructed me to buy new shoes. I have trialed all of the meds x 4 months above and sleep every night with socks lathered in aquaphor. On reassessment with derm, he told me to wait how it develops in 1 years time and see him again. Any thoughts on what the cause would be? Rather uncomfortable to walk around with this.

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