Confusion on the Bible and anti abortion

Let me preface this by saying I am not religious. I am agnostic, and politically independent but I definitely lean left and am pro choice.

One of the main arguments I hear for anti abortion is that they're a Christian and Christianity is against abortion. So, as I always do, I read into what the Bible says about abortion... And came out even more confused. Is the Bible actually anti abortion?

The #1 verse I saw being used as anti abortion was Jeremiah 1:5, specifically the line "Before I formed you in the womb, I knew you." I don't understand how this is anti abortion. Usually when people who are anti abortion say that conception is the start of life. Pro choicers say that conception is an arbitrary point in the development of a fetus. I feel like this line actually just reinforces the idea that conception is an arbitrary point. If God knew the child before it was even in the womb, he knew the child before conception, so conception doesn't actually have any significance in this verse.

Now, where I got REALLY confused, was when I read the only verse that I could find that directly talks about abortion, Numbers 5:11. I read it, and... Is the Bible pro abortion?

"Then the priest shall put the woman under oath and say to her, 'If no other man has had sexual relations with you and you have not gone astray and become impure while married to your husband, may this bitter water that brings a curse not harm you. 20 But if you have gone astray while married to your husband and you have made yourself impure by having sexual relations with a man other than your husband”— 21 here the priest is to put the woman under this curse—“may the Lord cause you to become a curse[b] among your people when he makes your womb miscarry and your abdomen swell. 22 May this water that brings a curse enter your body so that your abdomen swells or your womb miscarries.'"

"HE MAKES YOUR WOMB MISCARRY". SO. If the woman was unfaithful, the priest will cause her to miscarry. Obviously miscarries usually refer to unintentional deaths of the fetus but the priest is giving her something that he knows would kill any fetus in the womb. So it's an intentional miscarriage... Which to me, just sounds like an abortion.

People keep saying there is 0 circumstances for abortion to be the right option, but the Bible supports abortion when the woman was unfaithful. Do they really believe there is 0 circumstances for abortion to be morally correct or are they just trying to control women/are uneducated? Am I missing something?

• Sincerely, a confused agnostic