Given a fairly general but well-defined definition of violence, how did violence during 17th century compare to violence during the 18th century in the Atlantic World?

In their general introduction to the Cambridge History of Violence (2020), Philip Dwyer and Joy Damousi define violence "it in its broadest possible sense to include not only the use of physical force by a person, a group of people or an institution against one or more other living beings, but also a psychological, social and emotional dimension, to encompass any coercive or exploitative relationship." Given this definition or a narrower version of it, how did the nature and scale of violence during the 17th century compare with violence in the 18th century in the Atlantic World? Summarizing a European metropolitan nation, smaller region, or empire within the Atlantic World is probably easier than attempting a full comprehensive summary for the entire region, e.g. metropolitan France, Britain, the British colonies, Caribbean, Atlantic Africa, etc.