"I have tokens I was bidden to show thee,"

I was reading this earlier and got to wondering: is Mouthie deliberately using the informal “thee” to insult Gandalf, or simply using it in its plain, second-person singular sense?

In its AS origin, thee/thou referred to the singular “you,” without any implied familiarity. The informal connotation seems to have developed around the 13th/14th century, possibly influenced by French usage.

It would be perfectly in character for the Mouth of Sauron to employ an overly familiar pronoun as a subtle insult while maintaining the elevated register, but was that Tolkien’s intent, or am I overthinking it? What saith the Panel?