Need help, I have an important question about paranoia vs. OCD, I tried asking this twice before here, but ppl seemed to not specifically get what I was asking, so hopefully I rephrased it well enough this time?

Can and does OCD intentionally cause the person who has it problems, or, is the problems that OCD causes the person who has it unintentional and just a result of anxiety and fear of that person?

I mention paranoia, because, if a person thinks that the OCD does what it does on purpose, intentionally, when it actually doesn't, well then, their false belief about that will make them even more worried and anxious, now if OCD only does what it does out of activation due to fear and anxiety the person already has, well then, the person can rest a little easier know it, so, which is it, does OCD has an intentional agenda to mess with the persona with what it does, or, is what OCD does just an unintentional reaction to fears, worries and anxiety that the person may already have?