Why do the people who argue that Iran 'wasn't ready for democracy' in 1905/41/52/79 think America was ready for democracy in 1777?

Why is it that Iran 'wasn't ready for democracy' in 1905/1941/1952/1979, but now is? Why is this same logic no applied to America? How was America more ready for democracy in 1777 than Iran? Do you think everyone on America in 1777 had a PhD in philosophy ? Or was an illiterate manual labourer? Same with France or Britian in 1832. How many Americans could read in 1777?

Honest Abe who was president nearly 100 years later, never went to school and taught himself to read as an adult. He was the 1st member of his family to be even remotly literate.

India has been a democracy since 1948, Botswana and Senegal since the 60s. Japan was a democracy in the 1870s. How many indians in 1948 could spell their own name much less write a PhD on the works of Aristotle?

I must say I can't be the only one to notice this 'not ready for democracy' arguement is never used for white countries. No one seems to argue that Albania, Romania, Serbia etc are 'too backwards' for it.

If Japan and Germany can be democracies 10 years after VE-Day and VJ-Day anywere can be.