Libertarians & Compatibilists; free will believers...

If we consider the possibility that the self is (or is not) an illusion, especially in light of the post hoc fallacy, we can ask a deeper question about causal accuracy.

Which explanation is more causally accurate?

A) *“I ate because I was hungry.”*

or

B) The body registered depleted energy levels, sending signals to the hypothalamus. This triggered neural processing of dopaminergic pathways that motivated the organism to seek and consume food.

**Which account is more causally accurate?**

If option B is the more accurate description of events, then where exactly does the “I” enter the causal chain? in other words, *how is it that this sense of agency is truly a self-determining force?*