why is plato constantly associated with the theory of the forms?
in parmenides, the theory of forms is completely dismantled, and it's done when socrates is young. the aporia everyone is left with is just like the other dialogues.
in timaeus, statesman, or the laws, plato will sometimes write a lecture that gathers and weaves together the parts of discussions from the dialogues that are left in aporia, but he treats them conclusively and it's never socrates doing the lecturing. so the leap of assuming he's endorsing it seems like they didn't read the actual dialogues.
it's gotten to the point where, if someone evokes the theory of forms in reference to plato, it signals that they never actually read plato and just listened to other people talk about him.
do you suspect it was aristotle, in his quest to categorize and classify plato, where we see the beginnings of this, and then through plotinus, we see it turned into a systematic metaphysics, even though the dialogues themselves often do not support that reading?
Posted Mar 6, 2026, 8:48 PM UTC · locked