Specious as hell legal logic and hilariousness about defendants getting awarded fees

So someone babbled to me in the comments about how there was this case that showed that defendants are 'often' awarded lawyers fees under Rule 41(a) (2)

and I looked it up and the case said:

We have found only one case that awarded fees under Rule 41(a) (2), following a dismissal with prejudice, without relying on some statutory authority

Do these fools just not read the cases they cite lol

https://law.justia.com/cases/federal/appellate-courts/F2/764/122/149931/