A study found less ejaculation = worse control. Does that apply to MDG or not?

I've been reading deeply before fully committing, and I ran into a study I can't stop thinking about, so I wanted to bring it here to discuss. Not to dunk on the program, but because I'd honestly want to hear some feedback, especially from people who have successfully abstained from ejaculating for a while and then had sex with a partner.

It's a 2012 randomized controlled trial of 120 men. They split guys into two groups for 3
months: one only had sex after 10-day abstinence stretches, the other had sex about twice a week. The abstinence group ended up with SHORTER time-to-ejaculation and WORSE self-reported control. The authors' takeaway was basically "reduced ejaculatory frequency impairs ejaculation control."
Link: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/22456105/

On the surface that seems to push against the "do not orgasm at all" rule. But here's the part
I keep landing on, and why I don't think it settles anything either way:

That study tested abstinence BY ITSELF - those guys weren't doing anything else. No daily 20-minute sessions, no peak-and-valley, no cliffhanger work, no deliberate nervous-system training. MDG pairs the abstinence with daily focused practice. So it's very possible the daily edging is the actual active ingredient, and abstinence in our context behaves completely
differently than abstinence-while-doing-nothing.

So I'm genuinely curious what people here think:

- For those of you deep into the phases: during partnered sex, did your control clearly get BETTER while abstaining - or did you notice that "trigger-happy after a layoff" effect early on, especially in Phases 1-2?
- Do you think the daily practice fundamentally changes what abstinence does to your nervous system, vs. pure abstinence with no training?
- The guide says one accidental orgasm won't wreck your progress. Has anyone found occasional release actually helped, hurt, or made no difference?

TL;DR: There's an RCT where less ejaculation = worse control, which seems to contradict the
no-orgasm rule but it tested abstinence alone, not our daily-practice method, so I'm not sure it even applies. How do you all reconcile it?