The Argument from the Absence of Divine Moral Persuasion , Is it sound?

This was actually a shower thought, which i came back to and polished.
Not sure if it is original or even sound,
Please let me know your thoughts, references/answers to similar thoughts.

• Premise 1: If an omnipotent (all-powerful), omniscient (all-knowing), and omnibenevolent (all-loving) God exists, this God would desire that humans freely choose the good.
• Premise 2: A perfectly loving God would recognize that to make a genuinely free and meaningful choice, humans must first have clear, unambiguous knowledge of what the good actually is, and that this good aligns with a divine will. (Just as a loving parent clearly explains why a hot stove is dangerous rather than leaving a toddler to guess).
• Premise 3: Most human wrongdoing is the result of ignorance, systemic conditioning, or lack of awareness, rather than pure, informed malice.
• Premise 4: An omnipotent God has the power to make the objective nature of the good—and the divine desire for us to choose it—universally and undeniably obvious to every human mind, without coercing their ultimate choice.
• Premise 5: We do not observe this universal moral clarity. Instead, we live in a reality characterized by profound moral ambiguity, widespread ignorance, sincere disagreement over what is "good," and apparent divine indifference.
• Conclusion: Therefore, an omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent God does not exist.