Bar refused to serve my husband because of his disability. Do we have any legal grounds here?

Location: Pennsylvania, USA.

My husband has peripheral neuropathy that affects both feet and lower legs. He can walk without a cane most days, but his gait is uneven, he sometimes drags one foot, and when he’s tired he can appear unsteady. His speech, judgment, and behavior are completely unaffected.

Last Saturday, we went to a neighborhood bar around 7:30 PM with another couple. My husband had not been drinking beforehand and ordered one beer with dinner. About twenty minutes later, after drinking only part of it, he got up to use the restroom.

A bartender stopped him and said they would not serve him anything else because he was “obviously intoxicated.”

My husband calmly explained that he has a neurological condition and offered to show the medical information card he carries in his wallet. The bartender refused to look at it and said people use medical excuses all the time.

I explained that we had arrived together, that he had consumed only part of one beer, and that his walking always looks like that. The bartender then said that if he was “that impaired,” he should not be in a bar at all because he was a liability.

At that point, we were not arguing that they had to serve him more alcohol. We were mainly asking to finish our food and stay for soft drinks. Instead, the manager came over and told all four of us to leave.

The conversation happened loudly in front of a full room, and my husband was extremely embarrassed. We paid for the food we had already received and left without causing a scene.

One of our friends recorded the final part of the conversation. The recording includes the manager saying, “I don’t care what condition he has, he looks drunk and we’re not taking the risk.”

I understand that bars are allowed, and may be required, to refuse alcohol to someone they reasonably believe is intoxicated. What I don’t understand is whether they can remove someone after being told that the visible behavior is caused by a disability, especially when we were willing to remain only for food and non-alcoholic drinks.

We have the receipt showing that he ordered one beer, the video recording, and statements from the couple who were with us.

My husband is not looking for money or eager to file a lawsuit if this can be resolved another way. He mainly does not want the same thing to happen to someone else with a visible disability.

Could this potentially be considered disability discrimination under the ADA or Pennsylvania law, or would the bar’s responsibility regarding alcohol give them enough discretion to remove him anyway? Would it make more sense to contact the business in writing first, file a complaint with a state agency, or speak with a local attorney?