Abuse

Question

Why do people seem to think that one rider being abusive means that every rider must be abusive?

For example, 1 barrel racer hitting their horse doesn’t mean that every other barrel racer is abusive.

1 dressage rider preforming rolkur doesn’t mean that every other dressage rider is.

And on and on and on.

I’ve heard multiple people say recently that if one person is doing it, then they all are, and I firmly disagree. A bridleless R+ dressage rider generally isn’t preforming rolkur, and many other riders using bits and bridles aren’t either.

I seriously don’t understand people who think this way. Is this common? And if someone has an actual good argument against mine please tell me because I haven’t gotten a straightforward answer (that makes sense) from anyone that thinks this way.

Posted Jul 25, 2026, 11:32 PM UTC

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