Christians like to claim objective morality for their god, but when confronted with the atrocities of the Old Testament that are either sanctioned, ordered, or committed by god they insist on applying context. Why would an immutable, omnipotent and omniscient god needs context for his deeds?

What's so objective about god's morality if we in the present can look back and easily dispose the obscene morality of OT which also came from the same god?

Please don't respond that god had to work with the cultures of the time because that is a cop out. God had killed people for much less than enslaving other people:

  • Worked on a Sabbath
  • Caught the Ark of the Covenant as a non-priest because it was about to fall
  • Being the son of David's and Bathsheba's affair
  • Verbally mocked a prophet

If god had been serious about the moral quandary of slavery he could have made a "thou shalt not enslave other people" commandment and smite those who broke it.

Besides this is an omnipotent and omniscient god we're talking about here. You're telling me that god can't execute his plans any other way but through barbarism and mass slaughters; that god can't free the Israelites from Egypt without smiting all of Egypt's firstborns?

EDIT: Typo on title. It's supposed to be need instead of needs.

Posted Nov 7, 2014, 5:12 PM UTC · edited

44268
stringerbell•

God doesn't need context - Christians do. In order to assuage their cognitive dissonance...

19
SaaciayChristian•

I feel this was very well put and valid for such a short statement

5
christhelpme•

I didn't write it, but thank you.

We don't have to animals, well, I mean, you know, we ARE animals, but you know what I mean.

Shows intestinal fortitude.

0
daLeechLordAtheist, Ex-Catholic•

Unless you are u/stringerbell as well, nobody is claiming you did.

4
[deleted]•

[deleted]

3
ryanbuck•

I think you hit the nail on the head. This argument to me boils down to God's Objective Law is the official list of things that are right and wrong and they are not up for debate. If they were up for debate, they would cease to be objective and would then be relative morals just like we have in the world now. However, slavery is no longer ok. Killing homosexuals (for the most part) is not ok. Beating your children is not ok. So if these things are no longer part of God's timeless list of right and wrong, then he's hardly objective at all, it feels like his laws are just as relative as ours.

12
mowbentwood•

Either that or we are moving away from God's objective morality and we, as flawed humans, see it as wrong, incorrectly.

I suppose that's an argument that could be made, but then it couldn't seem like a bad thing from our perspective if we opposed him, even if it was at the risk of eternal damnation.

7
ryanbuck•

Ooooh, well if beating children and owning people is right, I would rather be damned because that is a terrible God.

18
mowbentwood•

Yeah, I'd say that would be a pretty reasonable position given the situation I propose.

4
griffcon•

We are only "flawed" because of our flawed design, and our lot in life is to struggle and cope with finite knowledge, finite resources, death, hunger, disease, mental illness, sexual drive, emotions, and a whole host of things that god doesn't have to deal with. Created sick, commanded to be well.

Who is god to criticize and damn us for things he doesn't have to deal with? It must be nice to be so perfect and not have to deal with any of the shit us humans have to deal with on a regular basis.

6
ificouldinterjectCalvinist•

If a few atheist got together and started a society, agreed upon a moral code that allowed beating children as punishment and owning Christian slaves would it be right?

-5
nomelonnolemon•

What? I think your missing the difference between subjective and objective morality as far as secular ethical discussions go.

7
aluciddreamer•

If a few atheist got together and started a society, agreed upon a moral code that allowed beating children as punishment and owning Christian slaves would it be right?

Such a course of action would stand against many values of common human decency. Most human beings would surely oppose them. I would argue that their actions put no value in human life; no value in the health, comfort or happiness of children, no value of the sanctity of childhood; no value in the right to bodily autonomy. I would question the values of anyone who did not oppose them.

To ask whether the course of action is "right" implies that any action can be "right" outside of a moral code; it implies that there is some objective standard by which we can measure "right" and "wrong." I don't honestly know whether it's possible to assign a truth-value the claim that "Slavery is immoral." I only know that anyone who would assert the opposite would stand against everything that I value; everything most human beings hold dear.

Why is it that we don't see secular activists participating in these sorts of acts, though? Why is it that the people who claim that to spare the rod is to spoil the child are mostly Christians reciting scripture? Why does the Bible not condemn slavery, or the abuse of slaves, or the abuse of children? If it's true that God has written morals on our hearts, why is it that our hearts don't reflect the infallible Word of God?

4
WarmFishSalad•

And yet think about the other things still acceptable. Clergy for the past 50 years who commited sex crimes against children werent thrown into jail, but forgiven and given a second chance. Come out as atheist or gay? Risk being disowned by your family. Are you a bigot? Christianity turns its head and looks the other way. You will be hard pressed to find someone on here that will make a moral arguement for any of these things, and yet it isnt something thats upsetting enough to cause an uproar among christians. Apparently some child rape scandels are acceptable as long as they are sorry and promise to stop. Apparently people still get to call themselves christians and be openly racist. Or a bigot. Or to threaten people for engaging in free thought.

5
Worldswithin12•

The lesson: morals don't come from religion, but from innate social instincts and enculturation. Organized religion is just a power structure and a bag of psychological tricks for the purpose of social control.

7
Opledople4610•

That child rape stuff is the Roman Catholic Church not Christianity. There is a difference Google it.

-5
jpstroopChristian, Progressive Protestant•

sigh

10
WarmFishSalad•

Its Christianities largest, richest, most powerful, most influential, most dogma laden branch of Christianity. Google it.

8
mightymittenzChristian, Protestant•

The OT Law, as I mentioned before, only pertains to the OT Hebrews. When you read about God making "a great nation" from Abraham or giving laws to a nation of people (as we do with Moses and the OT Prophets) we should understand this as the Israelites, not as a command for everyone for ever and ever, amen.

1
ryanbuck•

Ahhh, so homosexuality is ok now adays?

2
mightymittenzChristian, Protestant•

I would say yes.

0
KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

Congratulations and welcome to moral relativism i.e., the opposite of objective morality.

3
ryanbuck•

Awesome, I would say the same thing.

2
maize_gearChristian, Ex-Atheist•

Well, if someone is about to murder your child, and you kill the assailant instead, would you want to be charged with murder and have police throw away the 'context'?

Perhaps Gods work needs context, not for him, but for humans, who rely on context to make opinions.

6
WarmFishSalad•

Perhaps Gods work needs context, not for him, but for humans, who rely on context to make opinions.

Thats nice to think, but lets make things plain. He commanded a man be killed for gathering sticks on the Sabbath. In what context is this in any way moral?

19
maize_gearChristian, Ex-Atheist•

Well, he personally showed them the ten plagues, led them out of Egypt, split the Red Sea, sent supernatural guidance, food from heavens, healing from poisons, etc etc. And the Jews would have to rely on God even more in the future to survive. Its very harsh, and I wish it hadn't happened, but for someone to publicly disobey a direct command from God after witnessing all those miracles, and considering what was to come... but yeah its pretty tough...

-7
WarmFishSalad•

Let's read:

32 While the Israelites were in the wilderness, a man was found gathering wood on the Sabbath day. 33 Those who found him gathering wood brought him to Moses and Aaron and the whole assembly, 34 and they kept him in custody, because it was not clear what should be done to him. 35 Then the Lord said to Moses, “The man must die. The whole assembly must stone him outside the camp.” 36 So the assembly took him outside the camp and stoned him to death, as the Lord commanded Moses.


Where does it say he was Jewish, he knew of the Jewish god or saw any miracles? They found a man in the woods. The sons of Israel, the Jews, found a man in the woods. They didnt find another Jew in the woods (please avoid making jokes). The found someone they didnt know.

Now, lets stop. Lets pretend that the scripture does mean he is Jewish. Let's pretend for a moment that he travelled with Moses, saw great miracles and knew the power of god.

When he got caught, what happened?

A). Did they kill him on the spot because they knew the punishment was death for working on the Sabbath?

B). Did he cry out in sorrow for getting caught sinning?

C.). Was he captured and held until God told them what to do because they were completely unaware that gathering sticks in order to not freeze to death resulted in execution?

Ok, i've done my best to tear apart your response. Your turn.

8
PerfectGentlemanSkeptic•

The mental gymnastics apologists must use to excuse or justify the cruelty of their loving god is always entertaining and frustrating at the same time.

8
mightymittenzChristian, Protestant•

He would have been a Jew. OT Law didn't apply to everyone, just the Jews.

1
maize_gearChristian, Ex-Atheist•

Sorry, I'm not getting your point? They knew it was a direct command.

Also, you seem to be perfectly fine assuming he was gathering sticks not to freeze to death, while telling me not to assume anything.

0
KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

God is supposedly omnipotent and omniscient. He has infinite ways to stop the assailant from murdering this child without actually killing the assailant. In this context, god's choice to kill the assailant is not to stop the murder; he's killing the assailant for the sake of killing the assailant.

14
maize_gearChristian, Ex-Atheist•

I can see this debate has already entered the 'free will' and 'is God responsible for everything anyone does' territory eh ;)

2
Zohaas•

What? That completely sidestepped the response. If God is limited to a violent option, then he's not omnipotent. If he doesn't want to pick a non violent option, then he's not omnibelevolent. If he's too stupid to think of a non violent option, then he's not omniscient. Take your pick.

12
maize_gearChristian, Ex-Atheist•

I believe God has to strike a balance between interfering with our decisions, and free will. And that his methods have a long arch towards justice.

2
karmaceuticalChristian•

If God is limited to a violent option, then he's not omnipotent.

This is plainly false. I wish I could go into it more but I'm in the hospital. However, when you get a chance please read into the free will / Molinist world-creation discussions across the web to get an idea of how this comes about. It is simply a question of whether the ideal outcome for freely acting individuals could include suffering. If it does, then suffering, violence, etc. are compatible with an omniscient omnipotent and omnibenevolent God

1
KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

Not necessarily. The minimal requirement for god to stay within the scope of objective morality is for god to not have sanctioned, ordered, or committed the following:

  • slavery
  • killing children

There are many others, but I think I've demonstrated my point with just those two which OT god failed miserably.

3
maize_gearChristian, Ex-Atheist•

I see, it looks like you have made up your mind of what God ought to be like.

1
mightymittenzChristian, Protestant•

I would say that history operates as an equation and without all of the proper factors, the quotient will not be correct. God has a desired outcome, therefore, each piece must line up correctly. So, I believe that an infinitely powerful God ordained that there must be only one set of certain inputs that can result in one specific outcome. We might not always see the practicality of the events that occurred, but it was the proper way for them to occur.

(I'm not too big a fan of free will. Maybe it's showing...)

1
miashaeeAgnostic Atheist•

Simply because something is justified that doesn't magically make it moral, I could recognize that killing someone is immoral in all instances regardless of justification and still do it (perhaps to protect someone like you illustrate).

What is moral and what is justified are two different questions. In fact by equating the two we often allow ourselves to engage in greatly immoral things in the name of justification (we can rationalize a great deal of immorality).

5
maize_gearChristian, Ex-Atheist•

Can't say I disagree for the most part.

1
miashaeeAgnostic Atheist•

This is a part of why when someone says "you don't understand the context?" with respect to an action a deity or God took, it doesn't matter to me........like at all with respect to the moral assessments of actions.

Now a God or deity is different with respect to how we assess justification (in terms of scale and scope), generally speaking we justify actions based on expectations and abilities, with a deity that is potentially all knowing, all powerful, and all loving then the expectation to be moral is actually higher than it would be for you and me because that being has great power (and with it great responsibility, lol).

Sooooo if there is a God which is all knowing, all powerful, and all loving (ignoring the problem of evil here), I would think of that God as a monster, for not preventing things that it was capable of stopping, like how I would think of someone as a monster for not preventing child molestation if they could (if god knows everything and could intervene then technically he is allowing this to happen all the time in the world).

Really it all boils down to what this God is capable of doing and what this God knows........I don't care about context with relation to god while making moral assessments because if God can do anything then context doesn't matter.

2
daLeechLordAtheist, Ex-Catholic•

Context doesn't matter for one simple reason: God is claimed to be objectively moral. Objective morality means something is always moral or immoral regardless of context.

2
maize_gearChristian, Ex-Atheist•

It depends on what you think the end goal is. If you believe the world should be a picture perfect paradise with absolutely no shades of wrong, where everyone cannot do anything wrong, or even if they do God should intervene every single time, than yes God in the Bible does not meet your criteria.

1
Rushdoony4ever•

I agree with you. But I don't think the context helps in a lot of places, it just makes it worse. For example, killing the bride who turns out to have no hymen. The context is that women are property that lose their value once penetrated.

1
unsubinatorCatholic•

Why would an immutable, omnipotent and omniscient god needs context for his deeds?

Maybe because the mutable universe God created is contextual. It is "in a state of journeying"--it develops, grows... It is a bundle of potential act and actualized potential.

Please don't respond that god had to work with the cultures of the time because that is a cop out.

So why is that a cop out? If man evolved from non-rational brutes, doesn't it follow that a degree of pedagogy may be necessary; a period of childhood and then adolescence followed (hopefully) by the robust maturity for which we've been prepared?

In fact Christians must accept that God worked with people as they were, based on Jesus' discourse on divorce. Moses permitted divorce because of the hardness of Israel's hearts, "but from the beginning it was not so", and, "and man who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and causes her to commit adultery". So God permitted, for the sake of people being where they were, a thing that objectively is immoral, i.e. divorce and remarriage.

It's too bad that you can't see in such permission a patient and long-suffering God who wants by every means possible to bring mankind to the fullness of life. And instead see it as God being inconsistent.

I can assure you I let my 2-year old get away with a lot more than my 4-year old; and my 4-year old with a lot more than my 6-year old. And when my 6-year old says it isn't fair, I remind her that it is (that is, I'm being consistent), but that a 2-year old is not a 6-year old.

Context is important.

6
kaleNhearty•

What you are describing is by definition, moral relativism. What is right for one group of people is not necessarily right for another group of people. What does this have to do with the OP's question about objective morality?

Also, your example with your 2, 4, and 6 year old is an equivocation fallacy. If your 2 year old steals something from somebody, you're not claiming that's not wrong, you're claiming that you let your 2 year old get away with it.

3
unsubinatorCatholic•

What you are describing is by definition, moral relativism. What is right for one group of people is not necessarily right for another group of people.

No, what I'm describing is the same situation that obtains between human beings (or societies) at different levels of their developmental capacities You seem to understand this very well. Stealing is wrong, but if my two year-old steals from somebody and I deal with it differently than I would if my six-year old something, then I'm not at all claiming it's not wrong, just the way I deal with something wrong being done depends on the circumstances--the context (i.e. he's 2-years old).

So Moses permitted divorce among the Hebrews even though divorce and remarriage are, objectively speaking, contrary to God's eternal law. Moses did so "for the hardness of [their] hearts". But Jesus pointed the way forward to the way things were intended to be "from the beginning".

It's isn't moral relativism to say that that something is always wrong but that how we deal with something doing something wrong depends on the circumstances--on the context.

3
kaleNhearty•

then I'm not at all claiming it's not wrong, just the way I deal with something wrong being done depends on the circumstances--the context

So then in what context is slavery permissible? God has killed people for much less things than enslaving people.

So Moses permitted divorce among the Hebrews even though divorce and remarriage are, objectively speaking, contrary to God's eternal law. Moses did so "for the hardness of [their] hearts". But Jesus pointed the way forward to the way things were intended to be "from the beginning".

You purposely pick divorce because its easier to reconcile, why don't you address topics in OP's argument such as killing people for working on the Sabbath. Is that contrary to God's eternal law?

2
unsubinatorCatholic•

Don't we all believe that it isn't always and everywhere wrong either for one human being (or society of human beings) to kill a human being, nor is it always and everywhere wrong to revoke the freedom of another human being.

Or, if it is, than putting people in jail or drafting them into the armed services, or killing in war or in self-defense, would always and everywhere be wrong. And no Christian (or very, very few Christians) believe that's true. Nor, I think, do very many atheists.

And even among Christians (or others) who believe we ought never to use the death penalty--or very rarely--the suggested alternative is never, as far as I know, anything other than long-term incarceration.

And one of the arguments often used against the imposition of the death penalty by contemporary societies is, first, that we possess the facilities to safely keep people convicted of capital crimes incarcerated and separated from the general public; and, second, that executing people convicted of capital crimes involves the risk that we might execute an innocent person.

But the alternative isn't that we ought never to send anyone to prison on the grounds that by so doing we might be revoking the freedom of an innocent person. It's generally understood that there are circumstances when it is right to kill; and where it is right to revoke the freedom of another human being.

If failure to observe the Sabbath was a capital offense in ancient Israel, than that it should incur the death penalty isn't an offense either against reason or logic, even if it does seem a trivial excuse for putting someone to death to us. But here we're not arguing over the principle or God's eternal law--but about the context that this judicial precept exists within.

You purposely pick divorce because its easier to reconcile

Easier to reconcile with what? God's eternal law?

So what was the reconciliation? Moses' permission or Jesus' prohibition?

Wasn't adultery also a capital offense according to the Law of Moses?

Back to slavery, if it's true (and I think it is) that it isn't always and everywhere wrong to revoke a person's freedom, than what is it about slavery--or certain kinds of slavery--that makes it wrong to make a slave of someone else?

Or is it perhaps that slavery, as such, isn't the really impermissible thing, but certain attitudes and behaviors that almost inevitably attend the practice, and for which reason we've (as a society) concluded the practice itself ought to be prohibited, are?

But I assume that you, like most atheists (and even Christians) on this sub or on Reddit subscribe to what I call "the morality of consent"--that is, that what makes something right or wrong is whether or not consent is given to the act. So, the only difference between licit and illicit sexual intercourse is consent. And, likewise, the difference between murder and mercy killing is consent. (I disagree with the morality of consent, by the way--I would hold that a thing can be wrong even when all parties consent to the act.)

So, according to the Morality of Consent, it would only be wrong to enslave someone if you made them a slave against their will. But by the same logic, shouldn't it be permitted that if a man should choose to become another man's slave for the rest of his life, that his wish should be granted and even enforced by law? So that slavery (at least this kind of slavery) wouldn't be wrong--wouldn't even be called slavery, as consensual sexual intercourse is never called "rape".

But what about the children of slaves? I do think it odd that in our society we extend a tremendous degree of latitude when it comes to a parent's right to force his or her own will on their children--even to the point that a woman may choose to have her unborn child put to death for any reason or no reason whatever--but that for some reason, if a woman should choose to sell herself, and her unborn children as slaves, we would find such an arrangement morally repugnant. (Could a woman sell her right to a third party to decide whether or not the fetus in her womb should be aborted? I think the logic of abortion rights and the morality of consent would definitely suggest that she should.)

Anyway, we can argue about slavery or capital punishment or abortion if you want to. I personally don't understand how people who oppose slavery under any circumstance can also support a woman's right to abort her child under almost any circumstance.

Suffice it to say, you bring up two quandaries--one involves killing other people and the other involves a revocation, permanent or temporary, of other people's freedom. What I've said is that we as a society do not, in fact, believe that it is always and everywhere wrong to kill another human being or to revoke their freedom either permanently or temporarily, and that all we disagree about is the circumstances--i.e. the context.

3
Nick_FTN•

I would really like to see his response to this...

0
aluciddreamer•

Also, your example with your 2, 4, and 6 year old is an equivocation fallacy. If your 2 year old steals something from somebody, you're not claiming that's not wrong, you're claiming that you let your 2 year old get away with it.

This is exactly what [/u/subinator] is arguing, though; God allowed us to get away with behaviors which are objectively immoral because we were young, and now, because we are older, we get away with less. I fervently and passionately disagree with his premises, but I have to admit, it's a nicely-written apologetic. God's apparent inconsistency is, in fact, nothing more than an error in our ability to perceive, and thus an indication of his long-suffering patience and mercy for our sinful nature.

3
kaleNhearty•

God allowed us to get away with behaviors which are objectively immoral because we were young, and now, because we are older, we get away with less. I fervently and passionately disagree with his premises, but I have to admit, it's a nicely-written apologetic

The argument doesn't follow because God not only permitted but commanded behavior that would now be considered immoral by today's standards.

5
aluciddreamer•

The argument doesn't follow because God not only permitted but commanded behavior that would now be considered immoral by today's standards.

This is precisely why I thought it was a well-written apology. You can certainly attack the argument on those grounds, but to do it, you need to find an instance of God commanding an immoral act and demonstrate it (admittedly not so difficult in the age of information.) When you do, another apology is sure to be forthcoming. I must admit, I'm curious to see whether or not it's possible to maintain consistency using this line of reasoning.

2
spartanwaChristian, Protestant•

ITT: people twisting anything they can in order to justify a preconceived notion of who God is. Don't be disingenuous please.

5
KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

Could you please direct me to an example of this being done by me or other atheists in this thread? You could PM me this if you feel it's too intrusive for the person involved.

2
spartanwaChristian, Protestant•

it happens everywhere! If someone is coming from an atheist viewpoint, for example, then they already are of the belief that God does not exist and if they are trying to then make definitive statements about that actions, character or nature of God, it's pretty redundant and disingenuous.

5
KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

If we are to use the parameter you've set to be fair, Christianity basically can't be criticized by anyone except for Christians themselves. Quite frankly, that's a pretty asinine parameter for a debate.

Besides, most - if not all - of the atheists in this thread have characterized the nature of god inline with how the bible have presented god and how Christians have described god. Those characterizations may sound absurd but they're not incorrect. If they are incorrect, feel free to point them out.

So I must ask you again, could you please direct me to an example of mischaracterization being done by me or other atheists in this thread? If you have something, I'm confident that I could point to a Christian article of faith or the bible to disprove you of that notion.

8
spartanwaChristian, Protestant•

christianity can and should be judged critically - This is different from criticising. This can be done by anyone, but of course Christians SHOULD know the reasons of what and why they believe above others. The problem with speaking in absolutes about the character or actions of God, particularly if you don't believe it, is that you will look for certain things to support what you think. Ironically, God is complex AND simple. The nature of God? Perfect love and perfect justice and it creates quite the tension.

mischaracterisation? The minute anyone says God is 'obviously this or that' without understanding the complexities and contexts that are often lost in translation in the bible that we have. We look too often through 'westernised' understandings.

2
kansaslibrary•

There seems to be a split among Christians (Arminians and Calvinists) that take different sides on this issue. Here is list/summary of a few prominent takes on the issue. I'm not a theologian, nor do I really know what I believe on this issue.

2
KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

This is not a question about the problem of evil, which the content of your link seems to be addressing.

Please reread the questions I'm asking.

5
zipflopAtheist•

There is no context to justify children being born into slavery. The OT is immoral, and I would even argue that, if the choice could be made, somehow, Christians would discard the OT. I wouldn't be surprised if it is altered or deleted from their doctrine within the next 200 years.

2
iwontbeadick•

I can see it now...200 years in the future The Christian throwing his copy of the OT in the garbage, with nobody around to notice or care.

0
queondasrbushDeist•

For me there is two solutions to this dilemma: either God is bipolar or the actions "dictated" by Him are actually justifications to do horrible things, which one does seem more plausible?

Burned incense in a wrong way?, touched the Arc? I KILL YOU... I mean... God kills you.

2
LeonDeSchal•

That's just tells you it's not truly god or the creative force that those passages are talking about. Just an intermediary pretending to be god.... The peoples of the book have twisted and lost their path each time. The message is simple but humans are foolish. They believe more in themselves than the universal truth.

2
burleson2Atheist, Ex-Protestant•

One must first have an intrinsic moral value in order to judge any religion good or bad.

2
EdwardHarleyAgnostic Atheist•

Something can't be objective if it is based on a single subject.

1
redroguetech•

Why not? How is anything (with maybe a few hypothetical exceptions) not based on a "single subject" of the universe?

edit: Objective does not mean "always true, in all contexts", rather "is true; not subject to opinion".

5
KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

How is anything (with maybe a few hypothetical exceptions) not based on a "single subject" of the universe?

What is this even asking?

Objective does not mean "always true, in all contexts", rather "is true; not subject to opinion".

But it is based on an opinion, god's opinion. Under what definition would you say god's opinions to be objective? For example, in spite of opinions is it true that it's moral for the firstborn of all Egyptians to be killed for the purpose of Israel's freedom from slavery?

3
redroguetech•

How is anything (with maybe a few hypothetical exceptions) not based on a "single subject" of the universe?

What is this even asking?

Why can an objective fact not be "based on a single subject"?

But it is based on an opinion, god's opinion.

I would agree that " 'God's opinion' can't be objective." I do not accept 1) " 'God's opinion' is based on a single subject," or 2) "All facts are based on a single subject." The first isn't even relevant to the assertion.

1
WarmFishSalad•

Do go on

1
miashaeeAgnostic Atheist•

Not all Christians claim objective morality, hell not all of any group does (for the most part).

1
KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

I hope Christians that don't claim objective morality do reply. I have even more questions for them.

4
miashaeeAgnostic Atheist•

Doesn't really matter because they would just be the subset of the whole, you don't have to believe in objective morality if you're christian.

1
WarmFishSalad•

Who are they?

1
miashaeeAgnostic Atheist•

Of the 2 billion plus Christians........yeah not all of them would be proponents of objective morality, particularly many of the liberal ones.

1
KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

From what I've gathered most liberal Christians disconnect the cruelties in OT with god altogether. I don't know how.

2
miashaeeAgnostic Atheist•

Cognitive dissonance, also many liberal Christians embrace moral relativism when exposed to the obvious immorality of other cultures......

5
WarmFishSalad•

Which theology?

1
miashaeeAgnostic Atheist•

Hell if I know, I don't know everything about every single christian that does or has existed, but if you someone thinks that they ALL accept objective morality then I just think that they are overgeneralizing.

1
erythroProtestant Christian|Messianic Jew|pre-sup•

context isn't some magic extra thing to an action, it's understanding the action rightly. This is saying that someone was "really" good there should be no way of misrepresenting their actions. Which is obviously nonsense.

"Let God be true though every man were a liar"

1
daLeechLordAtheist, Ex-Catholic•

If an action is moral for some, but not for others, then it's not absolute morality.

4
erythroProtestant Christian|Messianic Jew|pre-sup•

what are you talking about? as in some consider things wrong but others don't? If that's what you meant then you have to understand that people can be wrong about absolute morality, the same way people cna be wrong about any absolute field.

If you meant specifically that some actions can be right for some people to do but not others then you are neglecting context. Shouting "fuck" in london is going to hurt far more people than shouting it in uzbekistan. That's not subjectivity, that's context. Shouting fuck in london is a fundamentally different act that shouting fuck in tashkent, because of context. Neglecting context means misrepresenting the action and instead you are giving the illusion it's a different action entirely. That's not subjectivity, independent of people's perception saying fuck in london is a different action with a different effect to saying fuck in tashkent.

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daLeechLordAtheist, Ex-Catholic•

If you meant specifically that some actions can be right for some people to do but not others then you are neglecting context. Shouting "fuck" in london is going to hurt far more people than shouting it in uzbekistan. That's not subjectivity, that's context.

If we are discussing absolute morality, then that is independent of context, by definition.

Example, let's assume that absolute morality exists, and assume that rape is absolutely immoral.

That means, that rape is immoral, no matter who does it, no matter where they do it, no matter when they do it, no matter why they do it. That follows from the definition of absolute morality.

If you rape someone in the service of your gods, that's immoral. If you rape someone because you are feeling violent and horny, that's immoral. If you rape someone to save mankind, that's immoral as well.

In other words, there can be no context where rape is moral, and still have rape be absolutely immoral.

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TheShadowKick•

If we are discussing absolute morality, then that is independent of context, by definition.

Incorrect. Absolute morality doesn't need to ignore the context of a situation. Is it immoral to kill someone? Are you killing them in cold blood, or are you killing them to protect yourself? The context makes these two acts very different, with differing moral considerations. An absolute morality can take these differences into consideration. The rule doesn't have to be 'it is wrong to kill', it can rather be 'it is wrong to kill in cold blood'.

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erythroProtestant Christian|Messianic Jew|pre-sup•

u/theshadowkick explains it perfectly. Context isn't some weird extra thing it's part of the action. Context is part of the action you are leaving out, not something extra added in.

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christhelpme•

Ditto!

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PerfectGentlemanSkeptic•

Please tell me in what context is it moral to kill people who work on the Sabbath, or to kill children who are disrespectful to their parents?

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drjellyjoeChristian, Ex-Atheist•

God does not need to have some kind of context applied. The true principle of this matter is that God's will and sovereignty is preeminent, and any attempt to try and get God 'off the hook' so to speak is futile. Everything was created for his pleasure, and it is his will that is the one cause and principle. His will is final, and who are we to judge his sovereign will? We are his clay, and he has the power and authority to do his will for his glory.

 

Romans 9 - 14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid. 15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. 16 So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy. 17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. 18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.

19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? 20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? 21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour? 22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: 23 and that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, 24 even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?

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Rushdoony4ever•

This one is easy. Agree with them that the bible was written thousands of years ago and is no longer relevant to today.

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Rushdoony4ever•

The new testament has the most immoral instruction in the whole bible: "Do not resist an evil person." Luckily nobody follows this instruction that is sane.

1

objective morality? Name one objective moral principle that doesn't have an exception. case closed.

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DukeOfOmniumAtheist, Anti-theist•

"Don't wear white shoes after Labor Day"

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OK, well technically you got me, but MORALLY.....think of the children!!!

http://biblelovenotes.blogspot.com/2013/02/shiny-white-shoes.html

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mightymittenzChristian, Protestant•

Humanity has a subjective form of morality. God has an objective form of morality. What may be distinguished as "good" or "bad" by human subjective morality is not always "good" or "bad" within God's objective morality. Therefore, God's actions may seem atrocious, but to say God is morally bad is a poor argument, because, per this argument, God's actions should butt up against our human idea of morality as strange.

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RazorINCChristian, Protestant•

Why would an immutable, omnipotent and omniscient god needs context for his deeds?

I'm not sure you thought this question through before you asked it. Context isn't a need, context is a fact. Everything happens within a context. Everything. There is nothing that happens without a context. Perhaps you don't understand what context means? Context are all the factors surrounding. We do not see or understand a thing correctly without knowing all else which surrounds it.

There was a commercial going around sometime back about seeing a part of something without the rest of what happened before and then making a judgement based on the part you see. One clip had this woman in an airplane with the cabin lights off trying to get up from her seat and then the plane shifted and she fell chest first into the guy in front of her and suddenly the cabin lights come on and the people are looking at this woman who seems like she's trying to get busy with that guy.

The point of the ads is what everyone knows but rarely practices. Context matters. If you are judging a thing only by the part you see and nothing else around it you are almost 100% likely to judge incorrectly.

Your question is like you being in a passenger in that airplane and refusing to believe there is no possible other explanation except this horny woman was trying to get busy in the middle of the airplane. And then when she tries to explain to you that you don't know the context you just keep saying "Why do I need to know the context!"

You may want rethink if its your goal to know the truth of anything. You will always need to know context to know the truth.

What's so objective about god's morality if we in the present can look back and easily dispose the obscene morality of OT which also came from the same god?

Firstly, you can't "dispose the obscene morality" because you are only giving your opinion that specific acts are immoral. You will likely say in response "but many people also think these acts are immoral" forgetting the fact you also know: just because everyone thinks a thing is right doesn't make it right. Was slavery right when everyone thought it was so? You're saying no, so you're arguing out of both sides of your face hypocritically to turn around and say, "but everyone else thinks it's right/wrong!"

As much as no one wants to hear this: You are not the judge of God. You have your opinion that what you read is against your opinion of right and wrong. Good for you.

If god had been serious about the moral quandary of slavery he could have made a "thou shalt not enslave other people" commandment and smite those who broke it.

This is once more built on your own personal opinion.

This always comes across harsh when I say it but I don't know another way. All of us, when it comes to something important like cancer or disease, are not going to accept the opinions of someone who has never practiced medicine and done the procedure before. We want to know that this person can do this thing and knows that they are talking about. We don't listen to individuals who know only as much as we know or less.

So, bluntly, who cares what your opinion of morals are if you do not have power and ability greater than God's? Who cares? You're just some person talking about medicine who doesn't have a doctorate in it let alone ever practiced it. Your opinion is worthless. To show I am being fair: My opinion is just as worthless as yours on morality. I don't judge a thing based on my opinion.

That's going to make you mad. I'm sorry. But until you find some other basis to determine the truth of a thing beyond your own opinion then you're just going to keep going around in a circle.

[2Corinthians 10:12]

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VerseBot•

2 Corinthians 10:12 | English Standard Version (ESV)

[12] Not that we dare to classify or compare ourselves with some of those who are commending themselves. But when they measure themselves by one another and compare themselves with one another, they are without understanding.


^Source ^Code ^| ^/r/VerseBot ^| ^Contact ^Dev ^| ^FAQ ^| ^Changelog ^| ^Statistics

^All ^texts ^provided ^by ^BibleGateway ^and ^TaggedTanakh

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Nick_FTN•

that verse you referenced was included in the bible because of someones personal opinion

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BigBo14•

Who's to say God sanctioned these acts?

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KharosOPAtheist, Ex-Christian•

Which acts are you referring to?

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