It's possible that Joseph Smith used condoms.
Many apologists assert that the primary reason why there were not children from the multiple marriages aside from with Emma was because many or most of them didn't involve sex. My own inclination is that given that sex was accepted in any union other than with Emma, it's on the apologists or the LDS church to provide compelling evidence that this wasn't the norm for all of his polygamist unions. The lack of children in and of itself isn't compelling evidence that sex didn't occur, particularly given assertions that John C. Bennett performed abortions. In 1844 there was a book which described how to craft condoms. An even earlier book was published in 1820 covering the use of condoms and coitus interruptus, and a reproductive "sponge" as birth control methods which became available in the US by the end of the 1820's.
Unless apologists can rule out the use of contraceptive methods, which were well known by the time Joseph Smith was an adult it makes no sense to presume that Joseph Smith had sex with some wives and not others. Regardless, if he was using birth control he would have remained in violation of LDS scriptures which indicate that polygamy's purpose is reproductive.
Edit: I feel like my point is speculating a bit, but use of contraception can't be ruled out as a cause for the lack of children.
Posted Sep 16, 2015, 8:19 AM UTC · edited