Why is criminal law part of public law?

To conflate disobeying the state and victimless crimes with violating property? To conflate state necessity with preventing property violations?

Public law governs: statesman-> 'private' individual

private law governs: private individual <-> private individual

Private law includes property law which would ban assault, burglary and the like.

Bonus cringe: '' An affirmative action program is deemed non-discriminatory if it is established in conformity with the Charter ''