Why rule two should not apply to feminist/m or any use of feminist/m should violate rule two.

To demonstrate this i posit that feminism is not even a word but rather a anti-word.

http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/us/definition/american_english/word

1. A single distinct meaningful element of speech or writing, used with others (or sometimes alone) to form a sentence and typically shown with a space on either side when written or printed.- emphasis mine

Feminism does not have a distinct meaning. Simply put if I tell you some one is a feminist or that some thing represents feminism, you have less information about that thing or person than when you started.

For example i am sure every one here is familiar with r/TheRedPill . what if i told you that r/TheRedPill fits neatly under some branches of feminism such as cultural feminism and the drowkanite schools of feminism. Even ester vilar of the manipulated man fame is/was a feminist of the cultural variety.

Also because of feminist distinct anti word status some may take offense of feminism as it could mean any thing from a vague notion of equality to return to patriarchy the kitchen (see conservative feminism) to gas the kikes men (see cultural feminism or literal nazi feminist [yes they were a thing see also feminists in the kkk and christian temperance movement]).

As such either feminism fails at being a word in which case it cant be generalized in which case it does not violate rule 2, or always violates rule two as an insulting generalization.

u/tbri u/Kareem_Jordan u/Karmaze u/StrawMane