ELI5:Why is "colored" considered to be a racial slur, while "Person of Color" is an approved description for people of African dissent?
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Posted Dec 21, 2017, 4:19 PM UTC
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Posted Dec 21, 2017, 4:19 PM UTC
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TL;DR: Historical context.
We get similar questions to this very often.
Please refer to our detailed rules.
We get similar questions to this very often.
I'm sure you do. Best not to dwell on them.
Hey you forgot to delete this post
Well, we should always remember that Humans have always found ways to dehumanise other Humans, and that it's a constant struggle we should always be aware of.
That said, if it's already been explained multiple times, it doesn't need to be posted on this sub (;
It might, just might have to do with things like this.
There is no approval authority. It's all about how the word is used in context and, in context "colored" was used in a discriminatory and derogatory manner.
Well... using one will lead to a verbal or physical fight and the other one won't, so in that respect there kinda is.
It just strikes me as arbitrary, that the words "person of" can transform something that would get you punched in the face into a term used by academics.
Aww the guy who made the following posts (before deleting them all) is so sensitive about racial issues?