Is faith irrational? Do you need proof against something not to believe in it?
I am an atheist and my parents and brother are all hardcore catholics. So much so they make me go to church every Sunday with them despite my voiced disbelief.
Today we had a debate. After about 20 minutes, I finally got them to admit there was no proof for or against the existence of a god. I then brought up the point that they were irrational because belief in something for which there is no proof is by definition irrational. Instead of trying to prove me wrong, they kept bringing up the fact that it would be just as irrational to believe there is no god when there isn't proof. (next paragraph) What do you think about this argument? Is it irrational to believe in something for which there is no proof?
I would be just as irrational as them if I believed that there couldn't possibly be a god. This leaves us with which argument is more rational, the belief in a god or non-belief. They kept bringing up the argument that me not believing in something because there is no proof for it is just as rational as believing in something for which there is no proof. What they meant was that their belief in God and the bible was just as rational of a belief as my 6.9/7 on Dawkins' atheism scale position (that being the thought that you have to be open to the idea that there could be a god because there is no proof against). My argument was that because the burden of proof is on the person making the claim, it's irrational to believe in something until it's proven true and that not believing in it, but knowing that it's possible that it could exist is the most rational position.
What do you think? Which one of us is thinking irrationally? I want logical, rational responses that either strengthen my argument, or prove it wrong.
(By the way. I'll post this in the Christian reddit so I don't just get one side of the argument)
Posted Aug 10, 2009, 1:10 AM UTC · edited
Entia non sunt multiplicanda praeter necessitatem.
Ne Jupiter quidem omnibus placet.
Errare humanum est, in errore perservare stultum.
Hic
This? What do you mean?
Occam's Razor as applied to his problem has been asked since Thomas De Aquinas Answered the damn thing in the 13th century. 8 centuries later and still unfounded myths are heralded as truth through hearsay and testimonials. Aquinas at the time was ok with that though 8 centuries later we're not! Sheeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeet
Sheeeeeeeeeeeeeeeet, I'm down with St. Tom!
Except for the crap about god being the principle agent. Clearly, Tommy uses the razor to shave the unneeded beard, but then subsequently glues the hair back on. Who can blame him though....if only he knew what we know now......8 centuries later.....
Now how do we use that razor again?