Why does dosage vary to such a large degree? Why is stacking such a bogeymen?
Now, I know what your thinking “how does talking about this this help anything. Just take your dosage and don’t go overboard.” Let me explain.
As we all (hopefully) know, SARMs exhibit their effects by binding to skeletal AR and promoting anabolic effects. In addition, dosage can be large/small due to how the drug is metabolized (how much of it makes it to the actual receptor), the half-life of the compound, and how selective it is. In addition, people gain AR as they both use AAS/SARMs and increase muscle mass.
My question is, in addition to the aforementioned reasons, why does dosage of selective molecules differ to such an extent. Why can I take 30mg of MK-2866 and feel no extreme side effects while 30mg of LGD-4033 will create a shit ton of androgenic activity and spillover?
Secondly, if we have a ceiling to how much actual SARM/AAS our ARs can bind to and use, why is stacking SARMs so frowned upon. I don’t dispute I was one of these people who hated stacking. However, can two (or more) SARMs be bound to the AR fully without “overflow/spillover” (and side effects)? Yes I understand binding affinity plays a role, but if there are “enough ARs to go around” ,wouldn’t everything be fine in regards to “overflow/spillover?”
By overflow or spillover I mean unbound androgens (because all skeletal ARs have been saturated) bind to AR (among other receptors) outside of skeletal muscle and wrecking havoc.
These are just my thoughts and shower thoughts when it comes to SARMs. If I have any information that is incorrect, please let me know (as well as link an article, study, or video if possible so I can learn). I’d rather be wrong then ignore new learning material.
Posted Jul 15, 2021, 11:54 PM UTC
Tbh though how do you know you fully saturated your androgen receptors...
You don't..
I can tell you with a straight face that 30mg of a sarm.. that has no ester and has a half life of probably 8 hrs isn't fully saturating shit
This is not to attack but just wondering. Why does Ingesting beyond a certain limit (for SARMs) yeild result that have diminishing returns. If they are never fully saturated, wouldn’t there be a positive 1 relationship between gains and dosage. Like there is a ceiling. This could possibly be because LGD isn’t perfectly selective and will bind to AR (and other shit) across the body; at high doses this binding could cause side effects. What do you think?
I think its less about androgen receptors and more about the bodies ability to synthesize muscle..the body can't shuttle and lay that much material, that's why long low dose cycles out perform short heavy cycles...
I'm not stating anything as fact here, only doubting the ability of a few mg of powder completely saturating androgen receptors across the entire adult body