To atheists: some thoughts on responding to the First Way

There has recently been a series of posts here explicating Thomas Aquinas' First Way argument. Responses to this argument tend to have been overwhelmingly reactionary rather than reasoned, mostly because of the argument's Aristotelian and teleological presumptions. This isn't surprising given that these are precisely the two things that modern mechanistic naturalism explicitly set out to reject, which is why the reactionary responses given here have tended to attack the argument for its alleged scientific irrelevancy. It seems that people feel adequately justified in presuming that the First Way is automatically false simply because it was formulated before the advent of modern science.

There is more to be said about this. Any viable response to the First Way presupposes an accurate understanding of it, including its more unfamiliar presumptions. For the most part, this never happens in atheist responses. And since the First Way is of a respectable age, it is unlikely - and rather presumptuous - to suppose that our own objections are going to provide something genuinely new. So rather than jumping right in and objecting, it seems to me that we should be looking at how other people have responded to the argument over the course of history.

As has been mentioned, Hume and Kant both provide objections, not to the First Way per se but to cosmological arguments in general, and not only to these, but to all inductive and metaphysical arguments whatsoever. We can certainly use these objections to dismiss the First Way, but their broader applicability, coupled with the demands of consistency, will require us to reject the foundational beliefs of the scientific method as well, which most atheists won't want to do. And, as previously mentioned, these objections are not really to the First Way itself, but only to arguments of its kind.

There is a more direct objection that can be advanced. The First Way concludes that the First Mover must be pure actuality, which translates into God being radically simple: he is identical to his attributes. However, if God is identical to his attributes, or properties, then his properties would actually be a single property, and God would himself be that property. And since a property is a mere abstraction which is incapable of causal efficiacy, God could not cause anything. Since this view is incoherent, we should reject it; and since the First Way explicitly results in this view, we are justified in rejecting it as well.

This objection has been advanced most recently by Alvin Plantinga, although the alleged incoherence of divine simplicity is almost as much a feature of modern thought as the exclusion of final causes (a fact which should give rise to suspicion). Note also that this objection should not be considered final. Responses to it can, and have, been made. I mention it here because I think it serves as a useful illustration of an appropriate response to the First Way. Of course, since this response is theological in nature, most contemporary atheists will not be interested in it anyway.

It is a natural psychological reaction to reject things that threaten our preexisting explanatory frameworks. This tendency must be resisted if we value reason, however. It should especially be resisted when we encounter ideas of ancient pedigree, whose true nature tends to be obscured by layers of misconceptions and received wisdom. When we strip these away, we will usually find not something alien and irrelevant, but rather the history of our own way of thinking. And it is understanding this history that enables us to have the possibility of choosing a different way.

Posted Jan 24, 2012, 12:09 PM UTC

16412
MisterFlibbleatheist•

I find amusement int he grasping as straws and jumping through hoops one has to perform to come up with these kinds of arguments.

The First Way concludes that the First Mover must be pure actuality, which translates into God being radically simple: he is identical to his attributes.

Why he, exactly? Assuming there is a "First Mover" or whatever, how does it logically follow that it's necessary to personify it? It's a huge conclusion to jump to if you ask me.

Lastly, one problem with all these arguments is, if we must stretch our imagination to begin to perceive how a god might exist, that otherwise never seems to intervene in our daily lives, then what's the point in even bothering with it? Another problem is, of course, that you can substitute the deity being argued for with a super intelligent alien or robot.. or maybe just a parking valet from another dimension.

All Aquinas (or any apologist for that matter) has ever shown me is that god has always existed in vivid imaginations and nothing more.

26
[deleted]•

Lastly, one problem with all these arguments is, if we must stretch our imagination to begin to perceive how a god might exist, that otherwise never seems to intervene in our daily lives, then what's the point in even bothering with it?

Why do we have to stretch our imagination to perceive how the Big Bang might exist, which otherwise never intervenes in our daily lives? What's the point in even bothering with it?

Aren't you interested in what is true? Atheists usually are.

Another problem is, of course, that you can substitute the deity being argued for with a super intelligent alien or robot.. or maybe just a parking valet from another dimension.

You don't understand the arguments at all if you can say this.

All Aquinas (or any apologist for that matter) has ever shown me is that god has always existed in vivid imaginations and nothing more.

If true, why not show where they're wrong? These are some very weak objections.

7
MisterFlibbleatheist•

Why do we have to stretch our imagination to perceive how the Big Bang might exist, which otherwise never intervenes in our daily lives? What's the point in even bothering with it?

We don't have to. There's observable evidence of the Big Bang. We can see it happening.

You don't understand the arguments at all if you can say this.

That's possible, but maybe that's the intent in the design of these arguments. However, the conclusion that apologists jump to that I can admit I don't get is why/how a first cause actually means "God"? When you consider that the only things in the universe shown to have sentience, or a semblance of it, are people and animals, and the occasional computer. Things on a grander scale are only animate due to natural cause and effect as far as we are aware, so why assume that a sentient entity is responsible for the origin of everything? It's only imaginative speculation. Most of all, why assume there is an origin of everything?

It's all conjecture. Everything in these cosmological arguments that leads to the next is imaginative, with no rhyme or reason to believe it, no evidence, and no logical path leading to the conclusion that a god exists. This is why I don't fall for them.

It's not a matter of understanding these arguments, it's a matter of opening yourself up to absurd level of incredulity. This is why a super intelligent robot is equally as valid (I mean, can you prove it's not?). Perhaps you may not understand my argument?

The problem with solopism is you and I are really spoons and you can't prove that we're not simply because you assume the real world is really real. Give me a break.

Can anyone even explain why a first cause necessarily has to be personified? Can anyone even explain how they "know" there is a first cause?

15
[deleted]•

We don't have to. There's observable evidence of the Big Bang. We can see it happening.

We can't "see it happening" in a conventional way.

Which is to miss the point of my question. Why doesn't the standard of "it doesn't intervene in our lives, so we shouldn't care" apply just as much to the Big Bang as to God?

That's possible, but maybe that's the intent in the design of these arguments. However, the conclusion that apologists jump to that I can admit I don't get is why/how a first cause actually means "God"? When you consider that the only things in the universe shown to have sentience, or a semblance of it, are people and animals, and the occasional computer. Things on a grander scale are only animate due to natural cause and effect as far as we are aware, so why assume that a sentient entity is responsible for the origin of everything? It's only imaginative speculation. Most of all, why assume there is an origin of everything?

It's all conjecture. Everything in these cosmological arguments that leads to the next is imaginative, with no rhyme or reason to believe it, no evidence, and no logical path leading to the conclusion that a god exists. This is why I don't fall for them.

It's not a matter of understanding these arguments, it's a matter of opening yourself up to absurd level of incredulity. This is why a super intelligent robot is equally as valid (I mean, can you prove it's not?). Perhaps you may not understand my argument?

The problem with solopism is you and I are really spoons and you can't prove that we're not simply because you assume the real world is really real. Give me a break.

Can anyone even explain why a first cause necessarily has to be personified? Can anyone even explain how they "know" there is a first cause?

Pretty much everything you're saying would be addressed by actually reading the arguments and trying to understand what they say. What's the point in speaking from a position of ignorance?

You can refuse to read the arguments because it requires "incredulity," but then you have nothing to say about the arguments that is worthwhile.

7
MisterFlibbleatheist•

We can't "see it happening" in a conventional way.

Not with our naked eyes, but we can see the expansion by way of the doppler effect, causing things to shift slightly to the red for distant objects. Yes, we need something like a spectrometer to see this, but if that isn't reliable, then you might as well tell me that anyone who wears contacts or glasses shouldn't trust a damn thing they see.

Which is to miss the point of my question. Why doesn't the standard of "it doesn't intervene in our lives, so we shouldn't care" apply just as much to the Big Bang as to God?

Because the Big Bang does apply directly to our reality. It got us here. And unlike a deity, all the evidence points to it.

You can refuse to read the arguments because it requires "incredulity," but then you have nothing to say about the arguments that is worthwhile.

Forgive me, for as a rational person, I assert that extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. When you claim things like a being winked, blinked, picked its nose, farted, or spoke, or what have you, it created the universe, I require evidence. You know... Like the observable Doppler shift that proves the Big bang. Not a chain of assumptions like "there is a first cause" and "a first cause can only be done by the mythological being I believe is real".

11
DrKnockers04Shaka when the walls fell•

Which is to miss the point of my question. Why doesn't the standard of "it doesn't intervene in our lives, so we shouldn't care" apply just as much to the Big Bang as to God?

I agree with you when you say this is a silly reason to "not care" about something, but aftermath from the Big Bang does intervene in our every day lives in many ways.

1
[deleted]•

We don't have to. There's observable evidence of the Big Bang. We can see it happening.

We can see some of the after-effects of it. We haven't observed the big bang itself, indeed, the notion of observing that which occurred before the very means we have of observation began to exist is absurd.

But anyhow, why do we call it a Big Bang? There wouldn't have been any sound, and how do you judge a phenomenon to be big, if there is no space or other objects by which to measure it?

3
minnodoesn't like flair•

But anyhow, why do we call it a Big Bang? There wouldn't have been any sound, and how do you judge a phenomenon to be big, if there is no space or other objects by which to measure it?

It was named by someone who was mocking the proposition. It's not an accurate description of how the process worked.

9
MisterFlibbleatheist•

We can see some of the after-effects of it. We haven't observed the big bang itself, indeed, the notion of observing that which occurred before the very means we have of observation began to exist is absurd.

Actually, every part of what we can observe of it, is the Big Bang. The Big Bang Theory simply describes the expansion of our universe from a singularity. It doesn't even make any assumptions on where the material of the Big Bang came from. We can observe this expansion and measure the rate of it. If we calculate backwards to when everything was roughly in one spot, we get a number (13.7 billion years). That's the Big Bang in a nutshell.

But anyhow, why do we call it a Big Bang? There wouldn't have been any sound, and how do you judge a phenomenon to be big, if there is no space or other objects by which to measure it?

It's just a term that was chosen to describe it so we know what we're talking about. It doesn't mean that the Big Bang Theory says that there was an audible bang. If you're trying to make an analogy to God with this, then you would be a pantheist -- which for all measurable practicality, is basically someone who uses the word "god" as a synonym for "universe" -- maybe with a little bit of sentience mixed in.

6
inyouraeroplanechristian•

It's all conjecture. Everything in these cosmological arguments that leads to the next is imaginative, with no rhyme or reason to believe it, no evidence, and no logical path leading to the conclusion that a god exists. This is why I don't fall for them.

He makes points that anyone not looking to disprove him will agree with. The universe acts according to cause and effect, but quantum mechanics sometimes doesn't, so nothing does. The universe came into being, except the Big Bang means nothing and it always existed or made spacetime out of no spacetime. The argument only says a first cause exists and that it must be outside the universe, but he obviously meant only Yahweh because I know what a guy who died centuries ago meant. It's a terrible argument with easily exposed holes, which is why philosophers keep putting it up across centuries.

Of course, this gets voted to the top because it confirms what the larger demographic already believes.

1
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

It's a terrible argument with easily exposed holes, which is why philosophers keep putting it up across centuries.

Because philosophers love terrible arguments with easily exposed holes?

2
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

I find amusement int he grasping as straws and jumping through hoops one has to perform to come up with these kinds of arguments.

This post isn't about the argument. Its intent is to address the attitude of smug dismissal exemplified by this sentence.

Why he, exactly? Assuming there is a "First Mover" or whatever, how does it logically follow that it's necessary to personify it?

That's not part of the argument. It's from my post, which as I said, isn't about the argument.

Lastly, one problem with all these arguments is, if we must stretch our imagination to begin to perceive how a god might exist, that otherwise never seems to intervene in our daily lives, then what's the point in even bothering with it?

If you believe that we shouldn't bother with things that stretch our minds or don't affect our daily lives, and you believe that the argument requires us to stretch our minds about something which doesn't affect our daily lives, then don't bother with the argument.

Another problem is, of course, that you can substitute the deity being argued for with a super intelligent alien or robot.. or maybe just a parking valet from another dimension.

No you can't, since none of these things share any characteristics in common with the First Mover of the argument.

5
MisterFlibbleatheist•

No you can't, since none of these things share any characteristics in common with the First Mover of the argument.

Yes they do. They share all the characteristics of the First Mover argument. You're just going according to your limited human perception of what you think is reality and what you think a super intelligent alien should be. You just don't understand it, that's all.

See? It all sounds pretty useless, doesn't it?

4
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

No, they don't share any of the First Mover's characteristics. Nor does the First Way argument appeal to the limits of human perception or understanding. Its conclusions are reached deliberately, methodically and rationally.

3
MisterFlibbleatheist•

Nor does the First Way argument appeal to the limits of human perception or understanding.

It absolutely does, for it's limited by the process of cause and effect. The fact that it's a "First" is already evident of this. The valet isn't constrained to the whole cause and effect process. It's not the "first" anything, it's everything! "Check mate." lol

3
Nark2020Outsider•

Lastly, one problem with all these arguments is, if we must stretch our imagination to begin to perceive how a god might exist

Maybe my mind is particularly small and simple, but I find myself having to stretch it to perceive anything scientific, mathematical, or linguistic. Very, very unlikely things can still turn out to be true, and each case needs to be judged separately.

3
MisterFlibbleatheist•

You'd be willing to believe that you are a spoon, then, on the grounds that you would otherwise be making the assumption that the universe as you perceive it in every way is actually real, correct?

4
Nark2020Outsider•

Er ... I don't know. Sorry, you'll have to unpack this a bit.

3
MisterFlibbleatheist•

lol Sorry, I know it doesn't make sense. The only way this can be explained, I think, is to have a conversation with someone like hammiesink. There is a parallel there, I promise. I'll try to explain it quickly as best as I can.

In short, the cosmological arguments make all kinds of baseless assumptions (there's a first cause, first causes are done by gods, the way we perceive reality isn't actually reality, etc). Using similar reasoning, I suggest that you and I are spoons. Maybe I've arrived at this conclusion by knowing that spoons go on tables, we know the universe is actually a giant table (on too large of a scale for us to detect), and therefore we are spoons that only see each other as these so-called human things on a strictly materialistic level.

If you disagree with me, then naturally you'd be making some assumption, much like the scientific method supposedly does, that reality is strictly materialistic and not "supernatural" (whatever that means).

4
[deleted]•

Why he, exactly? Assuming there is a "First Mover" or whatever, how does it logically follow that it's necessary to personify it? It's a huge conclusion to jump to if you ask me.

"He" because in the Latin which Aquinas wrote, neuter nouns are usually the result of actions or perceptions, and not things with agency on their own, and calling the supreme ordering principle of the universe a female would be unthinkable in a culture which saw women as inherently irrational and slaves to their passions.

God is personified because, if one accepts that there is a God, "he" has something which can be called a will, and an intelligence. So, he's described as being something like a person, because people are the only things so far that have will and intelligence.

3
MisterFlibbleatheist•

God is personified because, if one accepts that there is a God, "he" has something which can be called a will,

Thus the circular nature of this argument begins...

If you believe in a deity, it has a will, and things with a will are personified, so therefore it's a deity.

5
[deleted]•

If you believe in a deity, it has a will

It has something that can be called a will, if you accept the premises about there being something which is pure actuality, etc.

and things with a will are personified, so therefore it's a deity.

No, things with a will are described as being something like persons, because we have no better ways of describing them.

1
Grumio•

your first objection is a pedantic one with no real impact on the validity of the argument. Switch out "it" for "he" if it makes you happier. Your second point is a widely held opinion by many (myself included), but once again you have failed to actually critique the argument. You, of course, could be mistaken in thinking god never actually intervenes in daily life. A more productive method to prove your point would be to actually dig up the logical points of the argument and find the ones that lead to fallacy or some insufficiency. What you've written here is a great statement of your opinions and beliefs. However, nary an argument is to be found.

Ah well, should I really expect reasoned debate from this subreddit anymore?

1
joefluxatheist|antitheist•

The fallacies are well known and repeatedly stated. For example, it's a fallacy to conclude that the first mover has to be "pure act". You could have something which is a mix of act and potency and yet started existed with nothing causing it to exist.

2
sawseratheist|antitheist•

Clearly, you don't understand the Five ways, as any time anyone critiques them it is because they don't understand them.

Most frustrating is the repeated claim that the 1st way is not a dressed up version cosmological argument - though it clearly is.

10
dVntagnostic atheist | theological noncognitivist | anti-theist•

...It's the same fundamental argument which is always made, "Here's a problem, and it can only be explained with God!" (Oh, jeepers!)

Anyone who understands the first thing about logic and its utilization in philosophy should realize that one can make anything logical valid with the right premises. Aquinas' Ways are just one of a endless lineage of these claims. There is nothing impressive about a 13th century Italian priest who has convinced himself that a logical case can be made for God using an argument that is crafted and evolved specifically for the purpose of providing logical proof of a prime mover -- anyone can and has done it.

"If you accept this false dichotomy that I've created with the act/potency distinction (a distinction which has absolutely no bearing on reality... in any sense.) then it follows that something explicitly distinct from reality must have actualized the potential for reality to exist. And by the way, that something probably has some of the following qualities:

  • incorporeal
  • extremely simple
  • unique
  • eternal
  • immutable
  • omnipotent
  • omniscient
  • impassable
  • good

Oh, but no! We're not talking about God or anything -- there's no bias, here just pure intellectual rigor...^(sarcasm)

The Cult of Hammiesink should think well of me. I am being as Christian as one could possibly be -- I'm following the golden rule. The moment I insist that it is arrogant that you do not agree with my highly contextualized sophistry I welcome you to let me know.

6
sawseratheist|antitheist•

Boom shackalackalacka

/NBA JAM

2
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

...any time anyone critiques them it is because they don't understand them.

That's the point. I'm suggesting that understanding should come prior to critique.

1
tannatwe're here•

That's the point. I'm suggesting that understanding should come prior to critique.

You realize that the most efficient and creative approach is to validate and scrutinize the presumptions before bothering with detailed analysis and understanding?

The focus on relevant, correct inputs and models is favored because it limits mistakes and wrong conclusions, it is not a modern trend.

Why waste time on understanding something that can't give any relevant answer due to a flawed setup?

There is huge amount of dead end models to drown in if we don't care if they are wrong.

3
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

You realize that the most efficient and creative approach is to validate and scrutinize the presumptions before bothering with detailed analysis and understanding?

I have no idea how we can validate or scrutinize presumptions without understanding them first.

1
tannatwe're here•

I have no idea how we can validate or scrutinize presumptions without understanding them first.

Of course we can't. We need to understand the presumptions in order to validate them. The presumptions (inputs) needed to be validated are:

Motion, change, energy, material (things), space, time and existence. We need to establish unambiguous definitions of these quantities and their interrelations. This is all done though. We only need to confirm that the first argument treats them true to their properties. Did I forget any quantity that the first way argument needs?

1
sawseratheist|antitheist•

I was being a bit sarcastic - I enjoyed your post quite a bit.

1
Nark2020Outsider•

Everyone keeps forgetting that the First Way isn't an argument for any religion being true or truest, and that in it, God doesn't exist in the same way that a chair exists.

I'm inclined to go further and say that the sort of people who raise the First Way usually aren't the same people who want their religion to be truest, or who believe that God exists in the same way that a chair exists. I don't think anyone who ever held up a placard saying 'God Hates Fags' is very interested in Thomas Aquinas.

8
ThisIsMyRedditLoginex-christian•

I'd find it pretty amusing if Fundies started waving around "Thomas Aquinas Hates Fags" signs.

7
[deleted]•

Everyone keeps forgetting that the First Way isn't an argument for any religion being true or truest, and that in it, God doesn't exist in the same way that a chair exists.

Yes. Aquinas et alii make the difference between things we can come to realize rationally, and things which we can only know through revelation.

Without the supposed revelations about Jesus and forgiveness of sins, etc, this is not an argument for a specifically Catholic, or even Christian God.

4
RabornFluttershyism|Reformed Church of Molestia|Psychonaut•

God exists in the same way Big Brother exists :3

2
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

...the First Way isn't an argument for any religion being true or truest...

No one ever claimed it was.

...and that in [the First Way argument], God doesn't exist in the same way that a chair exists.

No one has forgotten this. It's a major aspect of the argument.

...the sort of people who raise the First Way usually aren't the same people who want their religion to be truest, or who believe that God exists in the same way that a chair exists.

So?

1
Nark2020Outsider•

Well, yeah, it's irrelevant to the validity of the argument, but this thread is about how best to respond to it, and I'm just saying how in my experience, a lot of people respond to it as though it's just a piece of obfuscation in the armory of certain political and social groups, i.e. not an honest piece of philosophy, which I think is unfair.

4
tannatwe're here•

There is more to be said about this. Any viable response to the First Way presupposes an accurate understanding of it, including its more unfamiliar presumptions. For the most part, this never happens in atheist responses. And since the First Way is of a respectable age, it is unlikely - and rather presumptuous - to suppose that our own objections are going to provide something genuinely new. So rather than jumping right in and objecting, it seems to me that we should be looking at how other people have responded to the argument over the course of history.

You are suggesting to put the wagon before the horse and start with the analysis for results irrespective of the validity of the input. This approach is pure waste of time. Especially when the input is so obviously convoluted and inductive as in the first way.

For any argument, irrelevant of age, the reasonable action to take when approaching it, is to check whether the presumptions makes sense and are relevant. If they are not, any additional time or effort on the argument can be done, but have ceased to have potential for creative result. How people previously have approached an faulty model may be historically interesting undoubtedly we are wasting our time on a dead end argument.

Input needs to be sensible for any output to make sense. There is an immense amount of potentially good thinking out there, destroyed by bad input. Thinking that that needs to be waded through if we approach questions by putting the wagon before the horse by approaching the result before validating the input. This kind of approach is not defensible unless you have infinite time or do intentionally want to avoid creation of new knowledge.

It seems like the first way may be relevant in a universe where existence is a part of motion and where motion/energy isn't conserved. This is not our universe though.

The logical and arithmetical stringency of physical proofs and arguments don't allow for

a solution from non compatible quantities, treated as compatible (as in motion/existence in actualization) and

1,5. Inductive definitions: motion is the reduction from potential to actuality which is the difference between the potential to exist and existence.

inductive restart at zero without subtracting what is added (repeated actualization (existence))

Representing motion as one single quantity (acceleration/speed?)

Representing energy as something in between actuality and potential when it is something entirely different and non-changeable. Energy/Motion is a "do", not an "are", as actuals and potentials.

These arithmetical defects all seem to be allowed in the first way argument. Metaphysics, not using a language limited to correct arithmetics gives room for hand waving. The hand waving may of course be correct but the first way argument is irrelevant for the physical universe we inhabit since the input is wrong.

Anyone investigating time in the first argument should do it by curiosity of the argument, it can't however, by it's own definitions, give any information about anything than itself.

It seems helplessly irrelevant.

7
LynusBorgatheist•

The First Way concludes that the First Mover must be pure actuality, which translates into God being radically simple: he is identical to his attributes. However, if God is identical to his attributes, or properties, then his properties would actually be a single property, and God would himself be that property. And since a property is a mere abstraction which is incapable of causal efficiacy, God could not cause anything.

Fascinating ...

I guess I will never see how this can be anything more than word games ... ಠ_ಠ

I'm not cut out for metaphysical philosophy, it sems

4
timoumdAgnostic Atheist•

I'm not cut out for metaphysical philosophy, it sems

I think thats a good thing.

3
LynusBorgatheist•

Oh, I'm not really sad about it at all ;)

There are many more important things in this world than metaphysics for me - pretty much everything i can actually experience one way or another.

1
timoumdAgnostic Atheist•

Exactly. when metaphysics does something useful Ill care. I tried reading Plato's Republic once and it was atrocious. I wanted to go back in time and shake him saying "You cant prove by analogy!". I mean philosophy was a good step towards using logic, but it seems to be useless now (except perhaps with things like the law).

2
dhookeatheist•

Very nice, but unless someone engages with these four points I don't have anything more to discuss about the First Way.

3
hammiesink•

Is it established by Aquinas that something cannot actualise its own potential? He uses an argument about hot and cold. But the fact they are exclusive does not make mover and moved exclusive. Inertia of bodies suggests that bodies do move themselves, as just one counterexample.

There are several responses to inertial motion: it is not clear that this is not a state, rather than the actualization of potential. For the body in motion to accelerate, or slow down, something else must actualize that potential. When coupled with the second way, the inertial body must exist in the first place in order to be moving at all, and its existence must be actualized by something other than itself.

Actuality = existence in this world. That is the distinction between potency and act. It is stretching the sense of actuality to ascribe actuality to something that does not exist on our temporal plane.

If it exists outside of time, this does not indicate it can't have any effect. A very imperfect analogy would be a lump of gold on a hill in the middle of a town which causes battles between the town's inhabitants. The gold just sits there, not moving itself, but yet causing all kinds of activity.

Existence is an either-or property. Something either exists or it does not. Aristotle's ideas of degrees of actuality and a perfect actuality seem to be rooted in Platonic idealism. If we reject Platonism, we can surely reject Aquinas' argument outright.

Aristotle too rejected Platonism because it's a bit too out there. He however provided a very down-to-earth and plausible alternative. But act and potency per se are not explicitly Platonic. They are just a reaction to Parmenides, and how things can change.

Has Aquinas shown that an essentially ordered causal series must have a first member? Paul Edwards says he has not

Response to Edwards is here, though I haven't read it.

4
dhookeatheist•

Thanks for your response.

That's fine about inertial motion, especially in respect to the Second Way, but the fact remains that Aquinas has not established that something cannot actualise its own potential. Not that I am aware of anyway. The argument from hot and cold is crap.

If it exists outside of time, this does not indicate it can't have any effect.

I mean "temporal" here in the sense of "not supernatural" as well as in the sense of time. The initial act-potency distinction is a distinction pertaining to being in this world. It is stretching the sense of actuality to ascribe it to anything in a supernatural realm, of which we don't have a coherent description.

What I object to in Aquinas' argument (and already present in Aristotle) is the idea of an "ideal" of existence, a perfect existence. In this sense of idealism it is taking an either-or property and making it "Platonic". Also, the idea of degrees of act-potency mixed.

6
dhookeatheist•

I've read and I've re-read the Feser, and all he seems to be doing is stating that, according to Thomism, per se causes don't have independent causal power. He doesn't say why.

3
Pastasky•

For the body in motion to accelerate, or slow down, something else must actualize that potential.

Think of a plucked string in a vacuum, while something must initially pluck it, once plucked, as it vibrates it will both accelerate and slow down. If something else must actualize that potential, what is doing it?

There is nothing else doing it which is a problem for you.

1
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

If something else must actualize that potential, what is doing it?

The thing that initially plucked it.

1
Pastasky•

The thing that initially plucked it.

Nope. Because we can destroy what ever plucked it, but the acceleration will still change.

Since it at times, will potentially have acceleration's that it will actually have at later times, something must be actualizing this change.

It can't be what ever plucked it since even after the plucker is destroyed, the string will still have potentialities being actualized.

2
Def-Star•

When coupled with the second way, the inertial body must exist in the first place in order to be moving at all, and its existence must be actualized by something other than itself.

And thus the conclusion that there is an actualizer that did all the original actualizing and potentializing is negated by the very argument that is supposed to support it. And how do you go from talking about Pure Actual, which is merel posited without any justification, to agent of Pure Actual, which seems to have been snuck in out of nowhere, with no justification, then suddenly takes on the persona of being with no justification or segue. Everything about it is merely asserted as fact with random attributes pulled out of thin air.

1
mikeashBenderist•

Is there a summary anywhere of the definitions of various terms used in these arguments, like "actuality", "potential", etc.? There's always extensive discussion on these arguments but I've never been able to figure out just what the words are supposed to mean.

3
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

I would recommend the SEP entry on Aristotle. Also, hammiesink has a writeup that might be useful.

3
mikeashBenderist•

Sadly, neither of those actually define the terms, although hammiesink's writeup at least tries.

3
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

For definitions, I would recommend a dictionary.

2
mikeashBenderist•

Thanks, that's really helpful. /s

I see these terms being used way more specifically than their common English usage. Whenever I bring up objections based on that usage, the response is always, well, that's not what the word means in the context of Aristotelian metaphysics. Yet nobody can tell me exactly what they do mean in a formal and precise way.

3
joefluxatheist|antitheist•

It doesn't help that hammiesink actually mixed two completely different meanings of the word actuality in his First Way essay.

Some of the times that he referred to it he meant something physical. An actual rose is particular arrangement of atoms that we call a rose.

Then other times he switched it to mean how close a thing is to its "ideal form". For example, a crudely drawn triangle is "less actual" then one drawn with a ruler.

He then mixed up these two very different (and widely under-defined) terms.

2
Def-Star•

There has recently been a series of posts here explicating Thomas Aquinas' First Way argument. Responses to this argument tend to have been overwhelmingly reactionary rather than reasoned, mostly because of the argument's Aristotelian and teleological presumptions. This isn't surprising given that these are precisely the two things that modern mechanistic naturalism explicitly set out to reject, which is why the reactionary responses given here have tended to attack the argument for its alleged scientific irrelevancy. It seems that people feel adequately justified in presuming that the First Way is automatically false simply because it was formulated before the advent of modern science.

If a description of the workings of the universe is scientifically false, then it is false, no matter what your opinion of the argument. And if the argument, no matter how valid and reasoned you think it is, makes basic mistakes in its understanding of the universe and the nature of the universe, it cannot be used to support its own conclusion. The very fact that the conclusions of the ways assert nonsense makes the whole endeavor nonsense.

There is more to be said about this. Any viable response to the First Way presupposes an accurate understanding of it, including its more unfamiliar presumptions.

Turn that around. Any viable response to the First Way presupposes the respondent be knowledgeable enough to know when gibberish is being presented. As it happens, the First Way is gibberish first to last.

For the most part, this never happens in atheist responses.

Cut out the arrogance.

And since the First Way is of a respectable age, it is unlikely - and rather presumptuous - to suppose that our own objections are going to provide something genuinely new.

Wrong. You can always find a new way to look at something.

So rather than jumping right in and objecting, it seems to me that we should be looking at how other people have responded to the argument over the course of history.

We can all do both.

As has been mentioned, Hume and Kant both provide objections, not to the First Way per se but to cosmological arguments in general, and not only to these, but to all inductive and metaphysical arguments whatsoever. We can certainly use these objections to dismiss the First Way, but their broader applicability, coupled with the demands of consistency, will require us to reject the foundational beliefs of the scientific method as well.

That's a problem for philosophy, not science.

And, as previously mentioned, these objections are not really to the First Way itself, but only to arguments of its kind.

And so those objections irrelevant to the First Way, but you just wanted to let everyone know that to reject cosmological arguments is to reject the foundations of science. That is philosophy's problem, not science's problem. I definitely think you should make a new post demonstrating that rejecting God is rejecting science. That would be pretty entertaining.

There is a more direct objection that can be advanced. The First Way concludes that the First Mover must be pure actuality, which translates into God being radically simple: he is identical to his attributes.

That is not simple, that is nonsense.

This objection has been advanced most recently by Alvin Plantinga, although the alleged incoherence of divine simplicity is almost as much a feature of modern thought as the exclusion of final causes (a fact which should give rise to suspicion). Note also that this objection should not be considered final. Responses to it can, and have, been made. I mention it here because I think it serves as a useful illustration of an appropriate response to the First Way. Of course, since this response is theological in nature, most contemporary atheists will not be interested in it anyway.

An appropriate response is any response that deals directly with the argument. If an objection is a sound scientific objection, that objection is the best objection to have. Any argument that gets the science wrong, whether or not they claim to be making a scientific argument or statement, will be wrong and can be thrown out.

It is a natural psychological reaction to reject things that threaten our preexisting explanatory frameworks.

The First Way is in No Way a threat to any preexisting framework due to its blatant wrongness. Science works, however, by challenging your preexisting frameworks and if your Moft Ancient Wifdom of Pedigree cannot withstand modern critique, then that is no fault of modern critique. The Moft Ancient Wifdom is not so full of wisdom and truth as you would like to make it out to be.

This tendency must be resisted if we value reason, however.

Agreed. If scientific advancements and understanding challenge your preexisting frameworks, then do not resist. Try to understand the world a little better rather than continuing to accept Aristotelian and Thomisian errors as fact.

It should especially be resisted when we encounter ideas of ancient pedigree, whose true nature tends to be obscured by layers of misconceptions and received wisdom.

Actually, that is the very definition of holding on to preexisting frameworks rather than challenging them.

When we strip these away, we will usually find not something alien and irrelevant, but rather the history of our own way of thinking.

That's called a preexisting framework. Challenge it!

And it is understanding this history that enables us to have the possibility of choosing a different way.

It is understanding that ancient peoples could have possibly been wrong about a lot of stuff that allows you to choose a different way.

3
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

The First Way is in No Way a threat to any preexisting framework due to its blatant wrongness.

Cool. We're all good then.

2
Def-Star•

As long as it gives you something to think about. There's some Received Wifdom of Moft Ancient Pedigree for you.

1
khafratheological non-cognitivist|bayesian|RDT•

the alleged incoherence of divine simplicity is almost as much a feature of modern thought as the exclusion of final causes

The exclusion of final causes, as characterized by your summary, is a feature of science. The incoherence of divine simplicity is a consequence of computability, which--as a branch of mathematics--is (hammiesinkishly) apriori truth.

2
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

The incoherence of divine simplicity is a consequence of computability...

Actually, it's not. It comes from a particular type of ontology in which properties and beings are radically different types of things.

1
khafratheological non-cognitivist|bayesian|RDT•

It seems we're thinking of different types of incoherent divine simplicity. I would explain the computability theory one here, but providing you with the necessary background would take 4 or 5 reddit comments; so I'll direct you to this excellent writeup by a medical student.

2
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

So it seems that the linked essay argues that God cannot be simple because programming (or "computing," if you prefer) him would be astoundingly complex.

However, this thought experiment has nothing to do with the identity of God with his attributes. God can be as programmatically complex as you please, but that has nothing to do with his ontological simplicity.

So yes, I suppose we're thinking about different types of divine simplicity, although I am not sure that your type is something that anyone has ever believed. The linked essay appears to conflate the two.

1
khafratheological non-cognitivist|bayesian|RDT•

You don't seem to understand quite how fundamental computability theory is. It governs all logically possible worlds, not just our world--like I said, theorems in computability are apriori truths. So unless someone's arguing from the position that God can make 1+1=3--in which case, why even use logic--computability theory governs his attributes: You cannot compress 1024 bits into one bit, even if those 1024 bits are God.

3
Pastasky•

Lordzork, can we describe God by listing things which he is, and or things which he is not?

1
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

A better question would be: is God distinct from our descriptive account of him?

1
[deleted]•

We say that we have to work out together all the consequences, whatever they may be, which follow, if the one is? Yes. Then we will begin at the beginning:-If one is, can one be, and not partake of being? Impossible. Then the one will have being, but its being will not be the same with the one; for if the same, it would not be the being of the one; nor would the one have participated in being, for the proposition that one is would have been identical with the proposition that one is one; but our hypothesis is not if one is one, what will follow, but if one is:-am I not right? Quite right. We mean to say, that being has not the same significance as one? Of course. And when we put them together shortly, and say "One is," that is equivalent to saying, "partakes of being"? Quite true. Once more then let us ask, if one is what will follow. Does not this hypothesis necessarily imply that one is of such a nature as to have parts? How so? In this way:-If being is predicated of the one, if the one is, and one of being, if being is one; and if being and one are not the same; and since the one, which we have assumed, is, must not the whole, if it is one, itself be, and have for its parts, one and being? Certainly. And is each of these parts-one and being to be simply called a part, or must the word "part" be relative to the word "whole"? The latter. Then that which is one is both a whole and has a part? Certainly.

2
Pastasky•

You tell me.

1
bac5665Jewish Atheist•

The first way is wrong because it's premises are false.

It is not necessarily true that all things in motion have a mover. My understanding of physics leads me to believe that all things are in motion and all things have always been in motion. In fact, in some models, motion and existence are the same thing.

Thomas's ways (all of them, not just the first) are incoherent in the face of modern physics. They rely on assumptions that are utterly false by the standards of our day.

(By the way, I am aware that what we think we know today may be wrong. But this is no support of Thomas. We've never once found out that a model of the universe was wrong because an older model was right. If modern physics is proved wrong, we will not return to actuality and potentiality. It will be something far stranger and beautiful that will turn out to be correct. Such is how it has always been, every time.)

2
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

In my post, I describe some characteristics of popular responses to the First Way, and I offer some suggestions as to why such responses are misguided.

In response to my post, you leave a comment which responds not to my actual post, but to the First Way, and moreover exemplifies precisely those characteristics which I criticize in my post.

So thank you, I guess, for helping me prove my point.

1
bac5665Jewish Atheist•

Your post was a smug, condescending, argument that seemed to simply say, without support, that most arguments against the First Way were emotional reactions and that we shouldn't bother arguing because better men have already tried and failed to disprove the First Way.

At least, that's how I read it. If I have missed your point, I apologize.

But if that is your argument, I felt the need to disprove it by providing an argument that you did not address. If, as I currently believe, I am right, then your defense is wrong, or at least misguided. Proving the First Way wrong disproves your argument. That is why what I posted is relevant and a proper response.

6
[deleted]•

It is not necessarily true that all things in motion have a mover. My understanding of physics leads me to believe...

You're mistaken: according to modern physics, changes are explained as the effect of some cause.

1
tannatwe're here•

You're mistaken: according to modern physics, changes are explained as the effect of some cause.

Actually he is not, an overall need for cause for all changes is something we are more and more skeptical about in physics. General determinism may be true but it seems more and more unlikely.

3
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

You're a physicist?

2
tannatwe're here•

Yup,

Finished my phd in semiconductor physics 2001. Been working with physics research/technology since then. But I try to not argue from authority.

2
[deleted]•

Actually he is not

Yes, he is. The hobgoblin of quantum mechanics has already been covered two separate times above, I don't see the point in repeating the same thing in a third thread.

1
tannatwe're here•

Yes, he is. The hobgoblin of quantum mechanics has already been covered two separate times above, I don't see the point in repeating the same thing in a third thread.

You realize that physics is neither a monster or a a matter of your opinion?

1
Pastasky•

You're mistaken: according to modern physics, changes are explained as the effect of some cause.

That is still up in the air for quantum stuff. Modern physics simply says "We don't know" when it comes to that.

2
[deleted]•

Whether classical variables are strictly determined is up in the air for interpretations of quantum mechanics which affirm both realism and indeterminism. But even if we grant that the correct interpretation of quantum mechanics fits those parameters, that still doesn't disprove the premise.

1
bac5665Jewish Atheist•

This is false.

See Bell's Theorum.

I don't like it, but it appears that particles do move in a system that works on principles other than cause and effect.

Also, even if all things require cause and effect, such a universe would not require all things in motion requiring a mover. Some particles could have come into being moving at the Big Bang and are merely still moving. Such a thing wouldn't ever have been moved, and yet would be moving. In fact, such a particle would need an effect to stop moving, which would be a change, at which point, your objection, if it were correct, would be relevant.

But your suggesting isn't correct and it isn't relevant to the First Way in any case. It is relevant to the Second Way, I believe, but that's a (slightly) different topic.

2
[deleted]•

This is false.

No, it's not:

Whether classical variables are strictly determined is up in the air for interpretations of quantum mechanics which affirm both realism and indeterminism. But even if we grant that the correct interpretation of quantum mechanics fits those parameters, that still doesn't disprove the premise.

Also, even if all things require cause and effect, such a universe would not require all things in motion requiring a mover.

Yes, it would, since these two propositions are equivalent in meaning. To say that all things require cause and effect is to say that all motion requires a mover.

Such a thing wouldn't ever have been moved

You're mistaken: evidently it was moved by whatever made there be that particle which is moving in that fashion, which you gloss as "com[ing] into being [..] at the Big Bang."

But your suggesting isn't correct and it isn't relevant to the First Way in any case.

My suggestion was a refutation of your stated objection. If this topic isn't relevant, then that irrelevancy is a further refutation of your stated objection.

1
bac5665Jewish Atheist•

I'm aware of no serious debate in physics that contradicts the interpretation of Bell's Theorem that rules out determinism. And trust me, I've looked. I'm not sure that I'm capable of believing in a universe that isn't deterministic, and yet there is near universal belief among physicists that the universe is non-deterministic.

And if the universe isn't deterministic, then cause and effect are not universal. The First/Second way (since you want to conflate the two) requires cause and effect to be universal in order to be correct. If cause and effect is only sometimes required, then we have no reason to believe that the origin of the universe requires cause and effect.

Unless I'm missing something, and I could be, Bell's theorem proves the First/Second Way false. Unless the universe is deterministic, there is no reason to suppose that the universe requires a prime mover. No reason. It's possible. There may have been a prime mover. But Bell's theorem removes all justification for supposing that there was one.

2
Daekingnostic atheist•

In fact, in some models, motion and existence are the same thing.

This is relevant to my interests. Do you have any sources for these models? I've been trying to reconcile particle "spin", and I would like to check out something that may be able to tie it with existence.

1
bac5665Jewish Atheist•

I don't have any sources right now. I believe that string theory says that matter/energy is nothing more than vibrations in spacetime. But it's been years since I've done the research, so I could be wrong/outdated.

1
Daekingnostic atheist•

Maybe. I'll look it up in my own time then. Thanks anyways, at least I have something further to go on now. Seems like greater minds before me have tried to figure this shit out. I was just hoping to steer clear of string, superstring and m-theory. Oh well, guess i'll just dive in.

1
bac5665Jewish Atheist•

Yeah, not wanting to learn about m-brahnes and such is why I really can't give you sources xD

1
[deleted]•

In spite of the pretensions of the Enlightenment, it becomes clear that people generally do not want to reason, and become agitated when they feel their personal faiths are being challenged. Perhaps one ought to conclude that society should leave to the multitude their personal faiths, and release them from the expectation to reason, which they find so burdensome. As to how society can be governed on such a basis, Spinoza's Theological-Political Treatise may be a good reference.

2
tannatwe're here•

Are you talking about the atheist who start doing their home work, scrutinizing the fundamental inputs of the arguments, in a bottom up approach?

Or are you talking about the theists who a calls the atheists lazy for not jumping right in to the argument, accepting presumptions clearly incompatible with the physics of our universe?

One way is bound for creative progress, the other is a house built on sand.

No thesis or construct will have more impact than its underlying facts and fundaments have the strength to lend it. The laziness here lies in accepting the presumptions on wishful basis, leading to unsupported conclusions.

That theological arguments should be a special case or have a special pleading, claiming correctness in conclusion in spite of fault in input has not been motivated.

Rational, creative people will usually start by disassemble assertions, definitions and presumptions. When those are shown to be satisfied it's time for the reasoning. This is a traditional, efficient, creative process where understanding follows the creation of the work/thesis. It's popular since it works and avoids mistakes.

3
[deleted]•

I'm talking about the hundreds of pages devoted to this topic without a single page demonstrating even a basic level of understanding.

1
tannatwe're here•

I'm talking about the hundreds of pages devoted to this topic without a single page demonstrating even a basic level of understanding.

Understanding of the flawed physics making the later reasoning irrelevant or the understanding of the argument that already has been shown to not be relevant?

How come the lazy bastards are the ones who question the input while the ones happily accepting inductive definitions of motion and energy that change aren't lazy?

3
[deleted]•

Understanding of the flawed physics making the later reasoning irrelevant or the understanding of the argument that already has been shown to not be relevant?

There isn't much understanding going on. Your comments on the subject are a good example. Your whole treatment of the issue amounts to simply not knowing what any of the terms mean, and once we clarify your misunderstanding, there's nothing left to your response.

Now, I don't blame you. They are relatively obscure terms, and though I understand that some bizarre ethics of pride and sustained ignorance that underpins these exchanges forces you never to admit this, I understand that you're not actually a specialist in medieval metaphysics, and thus not the kind of person we'd expect to have an adequate understanding of the terms used in medieval metaphysics. Nonetheless, when you encounter them, you make no effort to understand them, and so the conversation can't go past your sustained misunderstanding. This is characteristic of the general response to the issue.

1
[deleted]•

I know they're not your main topic here, but I remain committed to the sorts of responses to the cosmological argument in general offered by Spinoza, Hume, and Kant. There are certainly some more specific issues that belong to specific formulations of the cosmological argument, such as particular problems (e.g.) Aristotle faces due to the particular premises of his metaphysics. In line with the issue you raise, there are sustained discussions of the divine simplicity that arise out of neoplatonism and medieval philosophy. But I think such matters must ultimately concern issues about what specific sort of divinity reason leads us to, which is a rather more limited concern than the one which is of interest to atheists and related groups.

The generality of the sorts of responses offered by Spinoza, Hume, and Kant allow us to get around these limited sets of concerns about the nature of God to the broader issue of atheism. Moreover, I think these general responses have a broader significance for the history of ideas. They are not merely debating points on a particular argument of apologetics, but rather are descriptive of the Enlightenment development in general, and this has significance for science, ethics, politics, art, etc.

I think that, in the context of the whole history of ideas, it is quite understandable that the most significant responses to the cosmological argument (and ontotheology in general) would be found in Enlightenment thought. Enlightenment thought provides something of a backdrop to the debates of the 19th century and beyond, so that in these later periods, the direct confrontation with ontotheology moves into the background, and the arguments that occupy the foreground no longer give us a clear picture of how to conduct such a confrontation. The medieval period contains the most extended analysis of the logic of ontotheology, but at least in its most characteristic forms remains largely within the scope of the ontotheological project, whereas what we really want here are ways to be critical of this project wholesale (we could identify medieval trends that get toward this wholesale critique in those trends which are usually thought of as leading toward the Enlightenment, e.g. Ockham). Since it's really in the Enlightenment that this direct confrontation with ontotheology is an explicit debate, it is natural that Enlightenment thought gives us the clearest tools for understanding and arguing that confrontation.

It's true in a sense that Kant and especially Hume create some problems for science in the same breath that they create problems for ontotheology. But I'm not sure that's the best way to put the difficulty. The problem with Hume especially is that thought in general takes on an expressly conservative, even parochial, and fideistic foundation. It is no coincidence that theology in this period (i.e. particularly Protestantism) itself becomes critical of ontotheology and becomes fideistic. While appeals to faith by our contemporaries as a basis of knowledge is often misconstrued as being a regressive return to pre-Enlightenment values, a study of the relevant history shows these appeals to belong quite properly to the Enlightenment project. For the same reason, it's no accident that when we look to pre-Enlightenment periods, we tend to find things like the cosmological argument rather than appeals to the brute mystery of God or simple trust in revealed scriptures.

Here we find some of the broader significance of these general responses to the cosmological argument. The various sorts of vulgar faiths which dominate our own cultural context, faiths both atheistic and theistic, often present themselves as antitheses of one another, and are happy to collude in a fictional history of western civilization which supports the notion of such an antithesis. We see this for example in the bizarre enthusiasm atheists show for the fiction of fundamentalists that they represent the original worldview of Christianity. But working through the Enlightenment foundations to this way of thinking can help us to understand how these diverse cultural trends of ours actually share a common root. Hume's appeal to faith, and its parochial consequences, is simultaneously an interpretation of science which can lead to various vulgar positivisms, and an interpretation of religion which can lead to various vulgar fideisms. These two interpretations are the result of a single underlying attitude to our place in the world.

And the way to understand what this attitude is, what its consequences are, and what alternatives there might be is found in studying the cultural development which produced it, i.e. the Enlightenment development, of which the aforementioned responses to the cosmological argument are a fine case study and even an exemplar.

2
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

I know they're not your main topic here, but I remain committed to the sorts of responses to the cosmological argument in general offered by Spinoza, Hume, and Kant.

I think such a commitment is justified, and I even share it. Here, though, I was concerned with combatting what seems to be a common misimpression of cosmological arguments in general and the First Way in particular, which is that they are either trivially false due to basic logical errors or that physics has decisively refuted one or another of the premises. These misimpressions tend to be coupled with a strong desire to see the argument refuted, although this desire rarely leads to actual engagement with the content of the arguments.

I am not that familiar with Spinoza's approach, but the responses of Hume and Kant are indirect in the sense that they concern themselves with the general epistemic conditions under which cosmological arguments can be made, rather than engaging with the content of any particular argument. I don't believe (and I imagine you'll agree) that the value of this approach implies that engagement with cosmological arguments is unnecessary or superfluous, and since my goal here was to urge a more direct engagement, I thought that Hume and Kant might not be appropriate.

I think that when we examine the First Way historically we discover that, contrary to popular opinion on reddit, the argument turns out to be quite strong indeed, with the only direct attacks upon it being theological rather than atheistic in nature. Although on further consideration, even the objection to divine simplicity is not really a direct attack since it is addressed at an entailment of one of the argument's conclusions and not at a premise. I do agree, though, that this objection is ultimately of much less significance then the Enlightenment responses.

1
[deleted]•

"This objection has been advanced most recently by Alvin Plantinga, although the alleged incoherence of divine simplicity is almost as much a feature of modern thought as the exclusion of final causes (a fact which should give rise to suspicion)."

"It is a natural psychological reaction to reject things that threaten our preexisting explanatory frameworks. "

You are providing an argument that is part of an accepted preexisting explanatory framework. Not to mention not acknowledging arguments that are outside of it - except to say that they do not 'understand' the argument. This seems slightly ironic, and also says to me just to be that you are not hearing the rebuttal you were expecting.

Because you prefer this argument does not mean that it is the only or even the best argument necessarily.

Further, you cannot complain that someone is not going to do research to respond to what someone posited as an 'explanatory thread' in the first place (re. the other threads on this debate). If the OP cannot explain it in such a way that does not result in every other response being 'you don't understand it', he should not post 'explanatory threads'. Ditto Feser. It lends to the argument that divine simplicity is either incoherent, or that feser and the original poster don't understand it well enough to explain it.

1
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

[You have been] not acknowledging arguments that are outside of it - except to say that they do not 'understand' the argument.

The popular objections to the First Way have all been acknowledged. Since they do tend to be products of misunderstanding, their acknowledgement necessarily involves trying to correct that misunderstanding.

Because you prefer this argument does not mean that it is the only or even the best argument necessarily.

I never claimed to prefer this argument, nor would my preferences have any relevance in a debate about the argument.

If the OP cannot explain it in such a way that does not result in every other response being 'you don't understand it', he should not post 'explanatory threads'.

I don't know about that. One cannot bear the sole responsibility for making someone else understand something. The other person needs to make a genuine effort to understand. That's not what has typically been happening in the case of the First Way. Instead, people are refusing to understand the argument, and insisting that their misunderstandings be treated as serious objections to it. And with such people, there is nothing that can be done other than to urge upon them the trivial necessity of properly understanding something before devising objections to it.

1
[deleted]•

"I never claimed to prefer this argument, nor would my preferences have any relevance in a debate about the argument." Right, you are just telling people what an appropriate response would be: 'I mention it here because I think it serves as a useful illustration of an appropriate response to the First Way. "

"That's not what has typically been happening in the case of the First Way."

Right, it is a big wonder that is what you are seeing when you are looking for the "The popular objections to the First Way" "Since they do tend to be products of misunderstanding,".

"One cannot bear the sole responsibility for making someone else understand something."

Right, the problem is not that the long drawn out multi-thread explanations and that so much 'correcting misunderstandings' (lol) was flawed, the fault is with all the atheist debaters, gawd what a lazy bunch lol. Once again I will point out that all of this carries on outside of the thread, sorry, you cannot just confirm your bias about lazy debaters here, because this is a popular thomist response apparently. "Unfortunately, Edwards still deeply misunderstands how Thomistic cosmological arguments are supposed to work." (just one example of many, a la feser).

"and since the First Way is of a respectable age, it is unlikely - and rather presumptuous - to suppose that our own objections are going to provide something genuinely new."

Funny given that Plantiga is a living philosopher. "November 15, 1932 (age 79)" (edited to add age, from wikepedia).

1
lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

If someone claims that responses to something are based on misunderstandings of that thing, then the reasonable response (assuming this claim matters to us at all) is to first investigate the thing in question (so that we understand it ourselves) and then examine the responses given to it (so that we can see if they're based on misunderstandings).

Complaining about the fact that the claim is advanced at all, and then speculating on how the claim must be evidence of an overall conspiracy on the part of those advancing it, strike me as useless responses, although I suppose they might provide some form of cathartic release.

1
[deleted]•

My response is primarily quotes directly from you ಠ_ಠ

I did not say anything about a 'conspiracy' I said it was a common objection advanced by thomists. As you are resorting to a strawman (and slight ad hominem to boot) this conversation is over.

1
annataBullshitist•

Aquinas didn't believe his arguments himself. Otherwise he wouldn't have commended the torture and murder of those accused of heresy.

1
Bilbo_Fragginsit's complicated|antifundamentalist•

From an ethical standpoint, it could be said to only be ethical to cause temporal suffering if by doing so you might assuage much greater (in this case, infinite) suffering.

The inquisitions were in fact justified on these grounds, and if we were 100% sure that non-universalist Christianity featuring a literal eternal hell was true, I might agree. Of course, that is not the case, which is why we now universally find those actions horrifying.

1
covert_operation•

if God is identical to his attributes, or properties, then his properties would actually be a single property

How does this follow?

a property is a mere abstraction which is incapable of causal efficiacy, God could not cause anything

How is this not also a problem for God with many attributes/properties? Why is it the case that a single property is a mere abstraction that is causally inert, but a collection of properties is not causally inert?

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lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

How does this follow?

It follows via the principle of the indiscernibility of identicals.

How is this not also a problem for God with many attributes/properties? Why is it the case that a single property is a mere abstraction that is causally inert, but a collection of properties is not causally inert?

Because a God who is distinct from his properties would by definition not be a property, which means that he would not be an abstraction but rather a concrete being.

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covert_operation•

Because a God who is distinct from his properties would by definition not be a property, which means that he would not be an abstraction but rather a concrete being.

Forgive me, I did not mean to say God with many properties, but a God made up of many properties. The questions is not regarding the distinctness, but rather asking why bother arguing that God is a single property if properties by themselves are causally inert to begin with.

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lordzorkOPI get high on the man upstairs•

The point of arguing that God is a single property is to demonstrate that divine simplicity is incoherent. The motivation behind doing this is typically to defend a conception of God's nature that would be at odds with divine simplicity, e.g. a triune God or a personal God.

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covert_operation•

Well it seems that if properties are causally inert, this problem should be obvious to Aquinas, and it's curious that he did not think of it himself.

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[deleted]•

Ok, so this is what I have accumulated as per an explanation (given the debate threads we are referring to). help me understand (quotes from hammiesink)

"You have to understand the transcendentals, the scale of potency/act, form/matter, essence/existence, and so on and so forth."

So: Essence = potential

Actual = things that exist/matter

"In philosophy, essence is the attribute or set of attributes that make an object or substance what it fundamentally is, and which it has by necessity, and without which it loses its identity."

Essence is the 'identity' of the thing, or form?

"A "good" triangle is one drawn carefully with a ruler, because it gets closer to that ideal form of triangle. A sloppy one drawn by hand is "evil" because it is farther from that ideal triangle. "

a 'good' triangle is one that gets closer to it's essence, it's ideal form then?

"Something" exists. Something is "good" when it is fuller in existence. And so on. They transcend every other category, like the earlier H20 and water example, because they refer to the highest category that presides over everything: existence."

Something is 'good' when it is 'closer' to existence. Fuller in existence?

"If it's a mixture of potency/act, then it can't be the first mover, per the second premise."

"And this can only lead to something whose essence is existence. In other words, something that is existence itself. "

What?

So lets dig in to the definitions, perhaps I can find understanding there:

"Only actual things can do anything, as the argument lays out. Only an actual rose can attract bees to its petals. A potential rose cannot do so. So only actual things can cause anything. So what is fullest in actuality can cause everything. "

an actual rose exists, it is physical, it is the rose... ok, that is consistent with the definitions above...

"It doesn't matter. Pure actuality is non-physical. It isn't composed of energy and matter, or physical laws. "

Ok, so pure actuality is non-existent it is NOT an actual rose (it is without parts)... It does NOT exist in a material way, unlike the previous definition...so, Pure actuality is not physical, it has no parts, and actuality is the material thing?

These definitions are not clear, the concepts are not clear, and I believe it not at all shocking the popular response to this throws the problems onto the reader rather than trying to resolve this mess.

Also, there are no essences or forms. Just saying.

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