grayMotley

u/grayMotley




r/AskHistorians•

Diseases they had never had exposure to, killed upwards of 90% of Native American community members following 1492. The spread of disease occurred without eventual victims ever seeing a European; it passes from one tribe to the other and one group to another.

I haven't seen an explanation as to why that didn't occur around 1000 with Vikings inhabiting settlements and interacting with Natives.

11

Whenever I see people advocating for RCV or other voting systems, I wonder why should we accept that in a modern society with more than adequate tech, it is still presumed that the best way to select a representative for any group of voters, is one that has the criteria of capturing really no more than 50.1% versus 49.9% of votes.

Should we set the bar to achieving 60% of votes instead, such that there is a clearer broad base of voters supporting the candidate instead ... such that they are more representative of the voters at large?

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