Posted Jun 27, 2021, 9:38 PM UTC
In verbal phrases consisting of a conjugated verb and an infinitive, the direct object pronoun can go either before or after the phrase:
In verbal phrases consisting of a conjugated auxiliary and a participle, the direct object goes before the phrase:
With conjugated verbs, the direct object goes before if the verb is in indicative or subjunctive mood, but after the verb if it's imperative:
However, you might find direct object pronouns attached at the end of verbal phrases or conjugated verbs ("léolo", "he leídolo") in old texts and in dialects influenced by other languages that always attach the pronoun at the end.
This is great, thank you!
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For gerunds or infinitives, object pronouns like "lo" are attached to the end of the word.
For conjugated verbs, it always goes before the word.
There are two exceptions to this rule: the Continuous Progressive tense, and Affirmative Imperative, which follow the same rule as the infinitive.
My first Spanish teacher (when I was 14) told us the rule to remember was SNIDV. (He made us laugh by pronouncing this portentously.) It stands for Subject, Negative, Indirect-object, Direct-object, Verb. That's the order these things go in for a finite verb. Mi amigo me lo dio. (My friend gave it to me.)
When you have an infinitive, a present participle, or a positive command, the two pronouns get appended to the end, but the order of them stays the same.
You can say “Lo voy a leer.” Both ways are correct.
You can’t move “lo” in “Lo leí,” though.
Direct and indirect object pronouns can’t attach to conjugated verbs unless they are in the gerund or affirmative imperative forms in which cases they must.
The gerund: “leyéndolo” (reading it)
Imperative “léelo” (read it - an order)
Apart from the exceptions, they must precede the conjugated verb or be attached to the non-conjugated verb (the infinitive) if there is one, like in the first example.
Is it obligatory that the pronoun be attached to gerund? For instance, “mi amigo me está llamando” sounds good as “mi amigo está llamándome”
Both of these sentences sound good. The pronoun does not have to be attached to the gerund as long as it is placed before the first conjugated verb in the sequence.
Ex)
La maestra está ayudándome.
La maestra me está ayudando.
They both sound perfectly fine.
Now that you mention it, you’re right.
It depends on the way the gerund is being used, though.
When it’s preceded by another verb, it can go either way.
When it’s on its own, the DO and IO must attach to the gerund.
For example:
“He visto a Rosa dándoselo a Marta.”
Ah yea you nailed it, I could not put that idea into words. Exactly