Does Keynesian Stimulus Actually Work
Ok, NeutralPolitics, if there was ever a topic that is at once (a) timely, (b) controversial, and (c) at least in theory, subject to empirical input, this is it.
The basic idea beyind Keynesian pump priming is simple - government stimulus is supposed to boost aggregate consumption in certain recessionary situations as a function of Keynesian multiplier which is, in turn, a declining function of a marginal propensity to save as expenditures are cycled.
Others are not so convinced this actually works. Or, for the more easily entertained: this.
This is probably the single most controversial theoretical issue in politics today, underlying a whole host of other policy arguments. To be honest, most of the economists I know believe that stimulus spending is - tautologically - stimulative. But, they might be wrong, and what I know/believe is irrelevant.
So, how about it? I have an undergraduate degree in economics, but am basically a finance/law type guy and would consider it pure bliss to see knowledgeable people discuss this in a calm fashion, preferably with citations to peer-reviewed papers so that we can follow along.
Are we up to it?
Edit: typos, clarity. Edit#2: made sure to remove appeal to authority.
Posted Feb 17, 2012, 2:34 PM UTC · edited
Now, as a moderator I'd like to say this is one type of posts we are looking for. The only thing that could make it better would be to add a suggestion to refer to the sources in the wiki article if the wiki is not deemed sufficient for someone. If your "appeal to authority" was a request for specific moderation, PM me and I'll see if it's something I can help with, no promises though. Well done!