Almost finished with Groundwork of the Metaphysics Of Morals and had some questions.
1. Why does Kant associate Reason with “Law-Giving” authority? Is there any argument in the book that I might’ve missed? Or is this presupposed the same as Freedom. And even so if u try to justify Reason, Wouldn’t it be through physical phenomena? Through inclinations of why reason justifiably has this authority ?
2. Secondly, Even if granted that Reason has this capacity of “Law-Giving” authority, and lets says I exercise my duty perfectly and perform an action “X” that aligns perfectly with Kantian deontology, Why is it that Kant insists that no principle may be derived through this maxim? If I