Counterarguments to emotivism?

Roughly speaking, emotivism is the stance that morality is a special kind of emotion; there are no moral truths. All this morality talk comes from how people feel. I like this stance because it seems to describe what is actually going on when people talk/think about morality, and does not make the mistake of going further.

To flesh it out a bit, this is the causal chain behind people declaring patricide or other things (ex: drug abuse, necrophilia) to be immoral or inherently bad:

  • Doing and supporting patricide has certain effects/outcomes.
  • These outcomes interact with evolution and thus humans tend to have genes that lead them to feeling patricide is inherently bad.
  • When humans think about patricide, many find that they feel patricide is inherently bad, even if you ask them to think about what if patricide somehow had overall good effects. Alternatively, some humans are consequentialists and say patricide is immoral because the consequences (ex: human suffering) are inherently bad.

My second biggest point is that it is the "bad" consequences of patricide that cause humans (via evolution) to often declare actions or outcomes inherently bad. That's it. That's the cause of people's thoughts about morality and this is a decent description of what is actually happening in this universe. (I think it is funny that humanity's deontological sentiments arise from evolution, which is entirely consequentialist in nature. Consequentialism is the cause of deontologicalism.)

My biggest point is that nowhere in this causal chain do we have moral truths. If "human suffering and patricide are inherently good" was a correct moral truth, how would you know? To do better than chance, your beliefs must have a causal connection to the subject of the belief. I don't see how moral truths have any causal connection to people's moral stances.

I know when my shoelaces are untied because them being untied causes me to experience different things than when they are not untied. Also, I have a good guess that Jupiter does not have a teapot in orbit because of the following causal chain/web (the directions of the arrows are important): Jupiter does not have a teapot in orbit <-- patterns in the behavior of the universe --> what I reliably experience --> what I think about a Jupiter teapot.

The absence of the teapot is not directly causing me to believe the teapot is absent; instead, something that causes the teapot absence also causes my belief, and that is a sufficient causal connection. A reality that produces Jupiter teapots would lead me to have different experiences than the reality I live in would lead me to have.

A person who believes in objective moral truths might argue that moral truths and our thoughts on morality have a common cause. For instance, "moral truths can not be self-defeating, and patricide is self-defeating, which causes both for it to be immoral and disfavored by evolution". My reply is "How do you know moral truths can't be self-defeating? What caused that belief?".

So, what are the counterarguments to this stance I have described?

Posted Dec 8, 2023, 8:06 AM UTC

848
Brian•

One argument from an anti-realist perspective is that this doesn't seem to align with what people mean by morality. Ie. when someone says X is immoral, they do not merely mean they dislike X, but also seem to be asserting that other people should not do X in some kind of objective sense.

I think this observed intent of morality doesn't really square with the argument that "morality is a special kind of emotion". We could certainly argue that it underlies morality: that people are only stating the moral beliefs they hold because of an underlying emotive stance towards the thing. Likewise we could claim the only "real" part of morality, and that they are mistaken in taking this objecitve stance and the emotivism is the only true part of it, or that this is what people should mean by morality.

However, it seems like this should correctly be interpreted as anti-realism. Sure, this thing that looks a bit like morality exists, but it doesn't contain important properties that are included in what most people mean by morality, and so is false. If someone believes their lights come on by magic, but we look and see it's actually electricity, we don't say "It turns out magic actually exists - it's just another word for electricity, because those words mean different things, even if, for this person, they were functionally interchangable in this situation.

So you could argue that this is only a claim for the existence of "shmorality", nor morality: that emotivism is the "electricity" to morality's "magic" - it exists, and does the same things the person ascribed to "magic", but fundamentally, those words still mean different things, and the actual thing they mean by morality, with its reliance on objective truth still doesn't exist.

20
Whirly123•

Could you clarify whether you are talking about the psychology of morality - that is, how people make moral judgments and how "moral" considerations constrain or guide behaviors.

Or instead whether you are talking about metaethics - that is, independent of how humans answer moral questions, how can moral statements ultimately be justified and what exactly do moral terms like "obligation" and "blameworthy" really mean.

Your question relates to both of these things. First on the the psychological side of things. The idea that, at bottom in the moral sphere, everything is based foundationally just on on how something feels is called Social Intuitionism. Jonathan Haidt defends this view, saying that the actual arugments we make come after our feelings and act as post-hoc justifications. This is meant to counter earlier moral psychology that treats moral judgment as a form of rational processing. And again this contrasts something like Josh Greene's Duel Process view, where, it is argued there are two mental processes, one emotive and one rational and they often conflict and give different answers to moral questions. The two processes are argued to serve different adaptive functions and they reside in different areas of the brain.

There is a place to start to see where the arguments between these positions began, but really, this is early stuff in moral psych and things have changed a lot since then with more updated views. I didn't want to make this comment too big to talking about them but happy to say more.

Now, onto the philosophical side of things which somewhat mirrors psychology. Emotivism, as the term is traditionally used, doesn't argue that "morality is a special kind of emotion" only that it is the result of normal "moral" emotions like anger and disgust and guilt etc. (The study of "Moral Emotions" is also a big topic in psychology, see for example, the work of Roger Giner-Sorolla). I believe Emotivism originated with A.J. Ayer and this is just one view among a few different kinds of non-cognitivism. And the arguments against non-cognitivism come from the cognitivists (which either argue for Moral Realism or (J.L. Mackie's Error Theory).

Note that it could be true that the way humans answer moral questions is purely based on emotion and post-hoc reasoning and yet the "real" answers to moral questions could be true or false (i.e. psychological emotivism + ethical cognitivism)

So it all comes down to whether one wants to explain what humans are doing (i.e. psychology, see Fiery Cushman, Kurt Grey, Josh Greene etc) or what morality is (i.e. metaethics, see Bentham, Mill, Kant, Hume, Aristotle, Parfit, Darwal, Railton).

Personally I am a fan Alonzo Fyfe's Desirism which is a kind of moral realism but this is a niche position.

11
isionousOP•

Could you clarify whether you are talking about the psychology of morality - that is, how people make moral judgments and how "moral" considerations constrain or guide behaviors.

Or instead whether you are talking about metaethics - that is, independent of how humans answer moral questions, how can moral statements ultimately be justified and what exactly do moral terms like "obligation" and "blameworthy" really mean.

With my "second biggest point" mentioned above, I laid out the actual causal chain that explains/describes the "psychology of morality" as you put it. So, I think that emotivist-ish stances are good in they accurately describe our universe. I don't care much about the details of emotions vs preferences and the various non-cognitivist stances. I guess I should have used the term "non-cognitivism" more and "emotivism" less.

With my "biggest point" mentioned above, I build on that to go to what you call metaethics. The lack of causal interaction between moral truths and human thought lets me conclude that there are no objective moral truths in a meaningful sense. Let it be known that I feel no awkwardness imposing my morality on other people, like if I were to shoot someone trying to kill my spouse. There might be no objective moral truths, but humans can come together and agree on a lot of norms and morality and end up happy and consider the result morally good. The lack of moral truths doesn't really impede any of that stuff that almost everyone agrees is good. I don't feel bad about not being able to justify my morality to some hypothetical perfectly rational mind that doesn't share any of my preferences.

Emotivism, as the term is traditionally used, doesn't argue that "morality is a special kind of emotion" only that it is the result of normal "moral" emotions like anger and disgust and guilt etc

Sorry, I spoke too roughly before. I would say my brand of emotivism is that all moral stances come from particular emotions and preferences rather than moral truths. If everybody was emotivist, then we could just admit that morality is a special sort of preference.

2
Whirly123•

That's nice and clear, thanks!

If I may paraphrase you, you think:

What causes us to make the kinds of judgments we call "moral judgments" rests solely on our emotions and preferences. We have all sorts of different kinds of preferences and some subset of them we can call moral.

Hopefully I am representing you accurately, especially since I think this is statement is correct! We differ on (important) details but I don't want rattle on about it here unless you want to.

The lack of causal interaction between moral truths and human thought lets me conclude that there are no objective moral truths in a meaningful sense.

For this part I am less sure on what the claim is. It actually sounds like Error Theory (a Cognitivist position). Let's see! What is a "moral truth" to you? What would make it true? What is it that is causing our preferences and emotions and the shared cognitive systems we have to allow us to catagorise certain things as wrong, and convince others that those things are wrong, and change our minds about what we consider to be wrong etc. What ever those systems are (perceptual, cognitive, affective) they are connecting to something in the world (rather than them just being random). But, for you, I think you want to say that it can't be connecting to what ever "moral truths" are because you imagine moral truths would have to be a particular kind of thing and that kind of thing doesn't exist (or if it does it doesn't interact with us). Am I understanding you correctly? If I am, what kind do you think they would need to be and why does that thing not exist (or if it does it is undiscoverable as it must have no have causal power over our behavior)

Lets say you do something that I judge to be "wrong", I get angry and morally condemn you. That kind of thing seems universal in humans, we have evolved to categorize certain things as wrong and it is, of course, connected to our emotions and preferences. But what is it we have evolved to recognize? What features of the world, of people, of actions, of social interactions etc are causing us to assign certain things the label "wrong".

Suppose it was the case that we just recognized "violence" as wrong and that's all there is to it (obviously that isn't the case,but just for the sake of argument). So when we look hard enough we would see, ah yes, human minds automatically seem to categorize anything that appears to contain violence as wrong, and nothing else. Then we could just say morality is obviously real, and whether something is wrong is just a basic fact about the world and its simple everything is solved.

Of course it isn't this easy. What ever way process by which our minds catagorise something as wrong, its a lot more complicated that just "violence = true". But saying, because it is some process involve preferences and emotions, therefore nothing is truly wrong doesn't follow. It doesn't follow in the violence = wrong world. It might be the case that nothing is really wrong in our world where morality = something else, but first you would have to say what that something else is.

As I said an Emotivst, I actually think you are a Cognitivist, but I am just be misunderstanding. I think you want to say that our emotions and preferences cause us to declare something as morally wrong but we aren't just saying "this makes me angry" when we declare it. We are actually saying this has the property of "wrongness". And you want to say however nothing can actually really have the property of "wrongness" (of it it could we could never know) because what ever that is, it does not and cannot causally interact with human thought. Therefore any declaration that something is truly "wrong" is either false or unjustified. If I am representing your position correctly (apologies if I am not!) then I think you are an Error Theorist. This is a Cognitivist position that says declarations that something can be morally wrong are intended to be statements that could be true or false, it just so happens they are false because what ever would render something truly "morally wrong" either would have to be so queer that we would never know. If this sounds interesting here is the SEP on Error theory Mackie's book Inventing Right and Wrong is really good by the way!

1
isionousOP•

Hopefully I am representing you accurately

Your paraphrase in block quotes is accurate.

I think you want to say that it can't be connecting to what ever "moral truths" are because you imagine moral truths would have to be a particular kind of thing and that kind of thing doesn't exist (or if it does it doesn't interact with us). Am I understanding you correctly?

That sounds about right. To elaborate a bit, the lack of causal connection seems like a decent way to argue that even if moral truths did exist, humans would have no clue what they were, and thus we should stop with people claiming knowledge about them. Maybe once that is established, I can further argue that it doesn't seem like moral truths exist, but that opens a can of worms on what "exist" means or should mean.

What is a "moral truth" to you? What would make it true?

To someone who doesn't believe in gods, it's a little awkward for them to describe gods in detail...it's other people that believe in particular gods with particular detail.

Just like I can say that some people's conception of free will is ill defined and incoherent, I would say that people's moral truths are often that way.

The kind of moral truths that theists talk about make more sense to me, where the creator of our reality has a morality, and there is a firm connection between the nature of our reality and this morality. You can still argue against why we would accept that morality, but it certainly is less arbitrary.

Also, if our reality was very different where it seemed you could get every intelligent mind with various preferences to agree on some moral claims, you could do a better job of arguing that moral truths are a privileged pattern in reality rather than just a pattern that humans like.

I think you are an Error Theorist.

Hmm, error theorists seem a lot like non-cognitivists but they say "and because people are implicitly saying their moral stance mirrors an objective moral truth, their original moral claim can be said to be false". So, these people are saying that moral claims can be false in a very different way than moral realists, who are also cognitivists. Not every moral claim is uttered by a moral realist, so I guess I disagree with the error theorists, and I definitely disagree with some of these metaethical categorization decisions.

2
Emma_redd•

I do agree that morality is linked with emotion. I think that morality has largely the same origin and type of function as other socially related emotions like shame: an evolved characteristics that help us make the right choice (from an evolutionary point of view!). It is no coincidence that what is considered immoral is also frequently felts as disgusting.

But for me morality is also frequently linked to values in a more intellectual way, like, of course, for example in effective altruism. In this case, it seems to me that the emotion part is not directly linked with morality and that morality is constructed rather than felt.

7
isionousOP•

I wouldn't get too hung up on emotions vs sentiments vs preferences vs some other label. To be more precise, my take is that morality comes from special types of emotions and preferences (some people are more emotional in their morality than others), but I'm more interested in counterarguments to my causality-oriented rejection of objective moral truths and knowledge thereof.

2
Emma_redd•

Ah ok. I do agree that the morality is not objective at the first level -and the quest to 'solve morality' has always seemed very silly to me- but it can very well be on a secondary level. There must be a better way of putting it but it escapes me, sorry, non native English speaker and all that... I mean that deciding that, for example, the main moral principle is favoring the flourishing of other people is not objective. However, if this non-objective main goal/value is agreed upon (and if flourishing is defined with some consensus), then it can become quite objective to say that some secondary goals, like patricide or incest, are immoral.

​

PS (I think it is funny that humanity's deontological sentiments arise from evolution, which is entirely consequentialist in nature. Consequentialism is the cause of deontologicalism.)

I never realized that, very nice way of putting it!

What is your opinion about the distinction between deontological and consequentialist ethics by the way? I always thought that they are not fundamentally different, but rather just correspond to different levels of optimization of actions (individual and one off for consequentialism, general and repeated for deontological)

5
Whirly123•

What is your opinion about the distinction between deontological and consequentialist ethics by the way?

Derek Parfit thought that the big three theories (Deontology, Consiquentialism and Virtue Ethics) were three ways of walking up the same mountain. This has left people in search of the "Tripple-Theory" the way to show how they are indeed not fundamentally different. Richard Carrier argued similar here

And more recently Sydney Levine and Nick Chater have argued for a psychological "triple theory" [here] (https://osf.io/preprints/psyarxiv/p48t7) (really cool paper btw from excellent researchers).

PS (I think it is funny that humanity's deontological sentiments arise from evolution, which is entirely consequentialist in nature. Consequentialism is the cause of deontologicalism.)

Hare thought that Kantian Deontology could be seen as Consiquentialist, see here, but not necessarily all Deontology see here

3
Emma_redd•

Fascinating! Thank you so much for the wonderful references. I found the Sydney Levine and Nick Chater very convincing (if I understood it right as I am quite far outside my area of expertise!).

Can I ask you what your background is, and what kind of stance you find the most convincing on the subject?

Do you by any chance have access to the complete version of Consequentialize that? My intuition think that all moral theories are some form of consequentialism, so I would love to read their contradiction on that position.

2
isionousOP•

What is your opinion about the distinction between deontological and consequentialist ethics by the way?

Deontological ethics judges actions by their adherence to rules.

Consequentialist ethics judge actions by their outcome; rule based consequentialism is just a strategic choice of how to get good outcomes.

I always thought that they are not fundamentally different, but rather just correspond to different levels of optimization of actions (individual and one off for consequentialism, general and repeated for deontological)

That sounds like the difference between fine grained consequentialism (basically no one likes this) and rule based consequentialism, which can be considered "general and repeated".

A deontologicalist could be comfortable with rules that they think lead to suboptimal outcomes and does not judge a rule solely on the outcomes of the rule. A rule based consequentialist is all about choosing rules that tend to lead to the best outcomes.

1
Whirly123•

I see from this comment, the claim is quite different from traditional "emotivism"! Maybe my long comment below is less helpful than I thought so I will give it another try.

What you are asking is for what the arguments are against the idea that answers to moral questions can be right independent of "emotions", "sentiments", or "preferences". It is about objective vs subjective morality and more loosely about realism vs anti-realism.

The view that we only ever have reason to do something in so far as that something has some relationship to our sentiments or preferences is the Humean view (a la David Hume). This raises the question of whether there are moral reasons independent of other kind of reasons and whether they function the same way.

Non-naturalistic (but also non goddy) arguments for "objective" morality independent of our sentiments has been put forward most notably by Russ Shafer-Landau. Personally I think those arguments fail.

But there is some confusion here (not with you but even with those who work in this area) as to whether one means something can be morally true "independent of my sentiments", "independent of everyone's sentiments", "independent of anyone's beliefs", "independent of anyone's sentiments if they were fully informed and perfectly rational." These would be various kinds of Moral Realisms but the objective/subjective distinction is fairly muddy and unhelpful without differentiating between these things.

I mentioned in my other comment bellow that I personally like Desirsim, which says moral claims are true or false, based on the sentiments that currently exist (not my just sentiments, not just people's beliefs, and not people's instrumental goals). I won't defend it here (unless you really wanted me to).

I am writing a blog article on all this that is a very early draft but I am happy to PM you it if it is something you would be interested in checking out (also comments are welcome).

2
isionousOP•

I mentioned in my other comment bellow that I personally like Desirsim, which says moral claims are true or false, based on the sentiments that currently exist (not my just sentiments, not just people's beliefs, and not people's instrumental goals). I won't defend it here (unless you really wanted me to).

Desirism seems to say that norms that, when widely agreed upon, help people get what they want - those norms are moral.

Perhaps I am almost a Desirist in that I think that is a good moral framework for generating object-level moral stances, but I am not tempted to declare that these Desirist morals are moral truths. Very much like my example about someone asserting that moral truths cannot be self defeating (Desirists would agree, I think), my objection is you have no causal connection with objective moral truths. In a universe where "human suffering is moral" is a moral truth, how would a Desirist figure that out? I share the same preferences/morals as the Desirist, but these morals are not truths like how we usually use that word.

1
Whirly123•

Desirism seems to say that norms that, when widely agreed upon, help people get what they want - those norms are moral.

Ah no not really. A norm isn't necessarily a reason action unless there is a desire that would be served by following that norm (Humean view). It is also not about whether a norm is agreed upon or not but it is about whether those desires get people to agree or not.

Here's a try at a few sentence description of moral wrongness on Desirism (as best I can at least)

  • The wrong action is the action that a person with "good desires" and not "bad desires" would do
  • When someone intentionally does something, we begin by asking whether a hypothetical “good person” would have done it.
  • We understand a “good person” to be a person with "good" desires and "not" bad desires.
  • We understand good desires to be desires that, if held universally, would generally lead to more of people’s desires being fulfilled; and bad desires are desires that, if held universally, would generally lead to more of people’s desires being frustrated.

My objection is you have no causal connection with objective moral truths.

I think you are absolutely right given a certain definition of Object Moral Truth. I think Mackie makes this case perfectly in Inventing Right and Wrong (I discuss Mackie in my response to you further up). There is no such thing as intrinsic prescriptivity. There is no true objective morality if true objective morality must be separate from agents and their wants and needs. Desireism just says we can build an account of morality is not separate and in fact is about the relationship between people's wants and needs. And this account seems to give answers that match our moral intuitions really well (where other normative frameworks like Utilitarianism fail in spesific cases)

In a universe where "human suffering is moral" is a moral truth, how would a Desirist figure that out?

I am not sure a desirist could make sense of that statement, they would talk about whether "a desire to cause human is moral" since morality is about our actions and why we do them. Hopefully me slightly changing that statement still makes my response to your question work. A Desirist would discover whether this is moral or not by thinking about a world in which that desire was held universally and compare to to one where it is not. In those worlds are people's other desires more easily fulfilled or frustrated? For us world the answer is obvious because we don't like pain and sadness and discomfort and other kinds of suffering but its possible to imagine creatures that crave it and for them "a desire to cause suffering" would be good. Hopefully you see again that morality, on desirism isn't objective in terms of being separate from anyone or anything.

These morals are not truths like how we usually use that word.

I think its the other way around. This is how we decide whether any relational properties are true. I don't think the way we normally use the word "truth" matches how you currently think about morality which is why it seems to need to be something special and spooky that doesn't interact with human minds when really it is just a description of some properties of regular causal system involving intentional agents with desires that cause their actions.

2
C0nceptErr0r•

Most people who see moral truths as silly or logically impossible conceptualize them as these supernatural floating commandments that exist independently of any life, evolution and society. That makes no sense, so they reject such a thing.

But there are more naturalist accounts of moral truths that mean something different. Objective morality in this sense could be something like general priciples of game theory that "exist" logically just like math does. And humans (and other social animals) discover them via evolution because stuff like "cooperation helps survival" has broad usefulness. It's mind independent/non-subjective in a sense that prefering different moral behavior principles doesn't make it so, reality is what it is. Not in a sense that it has nothing to do with human brains.

I think your position is correct, but not sure if calling it emotivism is fitting. I find the standard emotivist account lacking as it conflates the whole thing into expressing personal feelings. But sometimes people say that something is morally right even if they don't want it to be, and even if they struggle to act on it. There's an underlying system of "rules of life" that can be reasoned about, of which "eww, I disapprove" type expressions is just one aspect.

I guess in the end it doesn't matter what you label it, as long as it's the right picture of how morality works and what can be expected in terms of finding answers.

6
isionousOP•

Yes, I'm perhaps not quite an emotivist.

1
scrdest•

I don't have a strong objection to the overall model, having been sympathetic to it for a while by way of Simon Blackburn.

However, I do want to point out you may be leaning too heavily on evolutionary pressures in your account.

This presents the risk of underestimating cultural effects and just-so-storifying things to fit. Some norms, such as 'cannibalism bad', are heavily culture-dependent and not universal. While evolutionary pressures do have an input, I doubt the biological 'platform' is that different between groups that do practice it vs. ones that do not.

If anything, the cultural pressure can likely override the evolutionary ones - I recall reading about a culture that not only mandates cannibalism as a form of funerary rites, but has its members actively suppressing nausea in order to fulfill the norm.

It would be interesting to verify if it holds up in isolation, because you could argue this is a matter of group coercion. If not, then the 'installed' moral intuitions are stronger than biological ones.

4
isionousOP•

However, I do want to point out you may be leaning too heavily on evolutionary pressures in your account. This presents the risk of underestimating cultural effects and just-so-storifying things to fit.

Even if you want to add more pieces to the causal web, it is the same story of actual things happening causing human moral stances. You won't be able to connect moral truths to that causal web. That tribe didn't think mandatory cannibalism was moral because of a causal interaction with moral truths.

1
scrdest•

Oh, absolutely. Again, I want to be very clear that I'm not arguing against the central point.

What I am saying is that the current, evolution-heavy presentation of the causal chains that you've used opens up a line of attack on your model unnecessarily.

2
moonaim•

You can define anything any beings experience or think away this same way, like free will. Start from how consciousness / qualia is often dealt with: "it's emergent". So, if that is "not real", then anything else beings experience isn't real, is just an emotion, which is just chemistry..

But it doesn't actually prove that your definiton is right, or a/the sensible one.

Same as with "free will", you can for example start to look at measuring it. Being free has different aspects, so does "having free will" when looked from practical (and not some "we have this model of universe called physics") viewpoint. The same goes to morality. You can try to define it from "what is good for me/you/us", "what does compassion mean", or some other viewpoint. But defining it on lower level leads to same kind of perhaps too easy argumentation "it's not real, it's emergent (emerging from complexity)". How about starting from the word "real"? I don't know, I have dishes to make..

4
ishayirashashem•

I have dishes to make..

Me, too!

2
isionousOP•

You can define anything any beings experience or think away this same way, like free will. Start from how consciousness / qualia is often dealt with: "it's emergent". So, if that is "not real"

Consciousness and qualia are very real. Consciousness and qualia causally interact with lots of stuff and there is a firm causal connection between them existing and people's belief that they exist.

1
moonaim•

For you sure, but are you sure about me? I'm just a (ro)bot.

But kidding aside, I know I wasn't very precise in my language, because the way people talk about "real" outside some specific research area. Consciousness might be real yes, but it is often also called an illusion. And we don't actually know what is needed for the difference between "inner illusion" and the illusion we see in chatGPT or any other kind of "consciousness looking, but probably not conscious the way we are" thing - even if we go closer and closer to the same functionality as we have in our brain.

1
Sol_Hando•

Emotivism might be a logically sound idea, and may even be a good scientific explanation as to why humans have morality at all, but to me it misses the mark of being what a philosophy is actually supposed to be. A philosophy is supposed to provide justification as to why humans should act a specific way independent of a threat of punishment.

Emotivism is an incredibly weak as a philosophy for justifying “Why” I shouldn’t kill my father. If the only reason is because “You’re biologically programmed not to want to”, then there should be nothing immoral about killing my father if that’s what I want to do. My emotions are telling me I want a new Ferrari so I should kill him and inherit his IRA, and not telling me not to kill my father. If morality is simply emotion, and I lack that specific emotion, then to me, there is no morality in that case, or perhaps even worse, my morals tell me to kill my father.

You can even imagine cases where the baseline emotion is towards immorality. Many children will steal a candy or snack if they get the chance and it’s only after punishment or the threat of punishment, do may children realize stealing something is wrong.

The whole philosophy seems to me to be a fair and reasonable scientific explanation as to why the concept of morality arose in the first place, but a very poor argument as to why we should or should not do certain actions now. Objective philosophies might not have the scientific grounding to reasonably claim their true objectivity, but I’d much rather buy into a philosophy that actually attempts to justify why I should follow it, rather than one that just describes why we have philosophy.

3
scrdest•

I don't think emotivism as a system of propositions is trying to persuade you to follow it or not.

In fact, I don't think it really could - this presents the classic 'is/ought' problem, with emotivism being very much on the 'is' side of the dilemma. You need another system to act as glue to bridge the gap into normativity.

This can be done, for example, as an appeal to self-interest. Rather than saying that you should do or not do Stuff because it fits your emotions (which is not emotivism, but some brand of ethical hedonism or something), you treat ethical debates not as logical arguments, but as tribal politics.

To put it more plainly, you'd parse Grugg saying "STEALING BAD" as "Grugg will get mad and smash your face in if you steal" and as you don't like your face smashed in, you avoid stealing.

Conversely, Grugg, who has hit the stone tablets lately, saying "the ethical duty of each man is to maximize the net total happiness of all humanity", translates to "If I act like a good utilitarian, Grugg will be more friendly". Whether you care is up to you.

This is obviously a very cynical take on ethics, but it is both consistent and persuasive in the most literal sense. It's ethics-by-reinforcement-learning.

Hedonism is another way to bridge this gap, but, as you've said, it comes off as short-sighted, impulsive, and ineffectual.

6
Sol_Hando•

If what I described wasn’t Emotivism but something else, I suppose Emotivism isn’t about morality at all then, as it does not give any guidance how one should act nor about right and wrong. While what I described might not be what Emotivism actually is, I was describing Emotivism as OP seems to treat it, as an alternative to objective moral truth based systems.

If Emotivism only deals with the “is” part of the equation, there is really no need to bring a counter argument from a philosophy that deals with the “ought” part. OP does identify some philosophies that deal with the “ought”, so my comment was really an attempt to refute the necessity of a counter argument, when Emotivism doesn’t itself solve the problems philosophy is attempting to solve.

If we take the conversation beyond emotivism into other forms of morality, like the threat of punishment sort of morality you describe, then I’m in agreement.

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Emma_redd•

If what I described wasn’t Emotivism but something else, I suppose Emotivism isn’t about morality at all then, as it does not give any guidance how one should act nor about right and wrong

Emotivism is part of meta-ethics, the study of moral judgement, but not normative ethics, the study of how one should act.

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Sol_Hando•

I may be out of depth then here, as I’m speaking from a layman’s perspective. Attempting to object to OP’s primary position on the causal chain behind why people declare to patricide being bad from a more meta-ethical perspective;

The causal chain outlined presupposes the truth of Emotivism before following it with reasonable conclusions that follow from that truth. There can be no argument against the reason that follows (which appears to be sound) that also starts from the claim that Emotivism is true.

It is the equivalent of an objectivist Christian starting their argument by saying “The Bible is the word of God/truth”. Without disagreeing with that initial premise, there is no way to argue against the implications and reasoning that follows that premise. The only option there is to look at what the fundamentalist’s philosophy suggests we should do and see if that’s a sound moral philosophy.

An objection to OP’s claims is simply: Emotivism might not be true. There may be intellectual or other reasons as to why humans hold moral beliefs. Emotivism is a reasonable theory, but does not properly apply to the many philosophers who hold beliefs justified from beyond their emotions.

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isionousOP•

I think some other people beat me to the bunch in saying that your criticism of emotivism is like a criticism of consequentialism for not telling you about which consequences to desire. Consequentialism and emotivism/non-cognitivism are at a different meta layer than what you are wanting.

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RationalDharma•

Emotivism as you’ve described it here reads like an explanation of our sense of morality based on evolutionary psychology. You’ve presented it as an alternative to the claim that there is an objective external source of moral values. But I have one counter argument and one reason that I don’t think this is a very interesting claim:

My counter argument: morality obviously isn’t just emotions/feelings. For instance I think people who I will never meet have equal moral value to close family and people I love. I think we’ve developed a much greater appreciation for morality over the last few hundred years, but we haven’t evolved at all.

Why I don’t think it’s interesting: it relies on a false dichotomy between objective moral truth and subjective feelings - these are not the only two possible sources of morality. I don’t have to believe that it’s grounded in a perfectly objective source of morality (or feel a particular way) to believe that there are good moral reasons to act one way and not another.

By analogy, there are good evolutionary explanations for people’s subjective feelings and behaviour which do explain some of how economics works, but understanding them doesn’t undermine economics as a field of study, or mean that economics is purely just about how people feel.

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isionousOP•

My counter argument: morality obviously isn’t just emotions/feelings. For instance I think people who I will never meet have equal moral value to close family and people I love. I think we’ve developed a much greater appreciation for morality over the last few hundred years, but we haven’t evolved at all.

For a given human's moral stances, we could definitely add more components about current conditions to the causal web. But everything you add will be things that are actually happening, and there won't be any newly discovered causal connection to objective moral truths. And the immediate cause of your moral stances seems to be your preferences and emotions (which are in turn caused by evolution and other physical things). So, my limited example was indeed very limited, but evolution is not the keystone of my points.

Why I don’t think it’s interesting: it relies on a false dichotomy between objective moral truth and subjective feelings - these are not the only two possible sources of morality. I don’t have to believe that it’s grounded in a perfectly objective source of morality (or feel a particular way) to believe that there are good moral reasons to act one way and not another.

Yes, I am also perfectly comfortable having a fleshed out moral framework, acting upon my morals, and even imposing them forcefully on others (shooting someone trying to kill a non aggressor).

But where are you saying that your morality is coming from if not from moral truths or your feelings/emotions/preferences/long-hard-logical-reflection-upon-your-preferences?

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fubo•

Consider fairness, honesty, or keeping promises. When we talk about someone violating these moral norms, there seems to be something going on beyond "they hurt someone else's feelings".

Rather, the moral feeling of "truth is better than lies; fairness is better than unfairness; keeping promises is better than cheating" seems to be a practical model of an underlying reality.


If Alice and Bob make a pie together, and Alice says "Let's split the pie evenly" and Bob says "No, I'll take the whole pie" — Alice's proposal is symmetrical while Bob's is not. When we talk about "fairness" we seem to mean something about this sort of symmetry.

When someone chooses to tell the truth or tell a lie about something that matters to you, there's something similar going on. As Kant points out, the world where everyone tells the truth makes sense in a way, while the world where everyone lies doesn't make sense. (If everyone lied constantly, then speech would be meaningless.)


We have moral feelings about truth and fairness. But those feelings are not the ground truth of the situation; they're a way that squishy human brains model and participate in interactions that are governed by underlying mathematical rules.

Our emotions can be wrong about whether someone has violated one of these norms. A person who is accustomed to privilege can feel "unfairness" when they are treated as an equal instead of as a superior. A person can feel betrayed when in fact nobody promised them anything. There is a fact of the matter, separate from that person's feelings.

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isionousOP•

Rather, the moral feeling of "truth is better than lies; fairness is better than unfairness; keeping promises is better than cheating" seems to be a practical model of an underlying reality.

Yes, I give an example of how it is no coincidence that loving patricide is both "self-defeating" and disfavored by evolution, so humans tend to dislike patricide. It is fair to say the human moral feeling against patricide is caused by the practicalities of underlying reality.

The emotivist thinks that "Breaking promises is bad" means the same thing as "Breaking promises? I react negatively to that! Ick! Argh! Grr!"

That's why I say that morality seems to be a special sort of preference and I recognize it has important differences from preferences for certain ice cream flavors. So, it is almost the same.

We have moral feelings about truth and fairness. But those feelings are not the ground truth of the situation; they're a way that squishy human brains model and participate in interactions that are governed by underlying mathematical rules.

Sure. My original post is consistent with that. My disagreement with people is connecting those underlying things to objective moral truths. For instance, I can accept "patricide tends to be self defeating" as a correct and important truth. I, in fact, condemn patricide as immoral. I just don't agree with "the immorality of patricide is an objective moral truth". How would I know if I was wrong? I lack a causal connection to moral truths.

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fubo•

I lack a causal connection to moral truths.

We can observe empirical results like gains from trade, which depend on people keeping their word with their trading partners rather than aggressively ripping everyone off.

We can also observe theoretical results like the Iterated Prisoner's Dilemma, in which "lie, cheat, and steal" fails to outcompete "tit-for-tat (with forgiveness)".

Our economic and social world is not a bunch of disconnected anonymous trades in which morality could never develop. It actually is a space in which keeping your promises makes you a better trading partner.

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isionousOP•

You pointed to objective game theory stuff and I agree that stuff can be called objective truths. The hard part is then connecting them to objective moral truths. My original post talks about how it is no coincidence that evolution disfavors things that are objectively self limiting, and thus we end up disliking things that are self limiting. Our dislike of self limiting things is causally connected to certain objective truths, just not objective moral truths.

Where is the connection to objective moral truths?

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fubo•

The original topic was emotivism, which is the idea that moral sentences are expressions of emotional states.

My point was that, at least in some cases, moral sentences and emotional states both reflect underlying mathematical truths.

The moral sentences (like "breaking promises is wrong!") and the emotional states (like feeling betrayed and not wanting to interact with your betrayer anymore) both attempt to express the underlying pattern that promise-breaking is inferior to promise-keeping as a way of organizing our lives together.

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AdmiralFeareon•

I like this stance because it seems to describe what is actually going on when people talk/think about morality, and does not make the mistake of going further.

Philosophy isn't in the business of discovering what ordinary people mean when they communicate using language. This is an empirical question. As such, you can pretty much discard any semantic thesis a philosopher (or you yourself as somebody not trained in sociolinguistics or social psychology) postulates about the "meanings of words".

My second biggest point is that it is the "bad" consequences of patricide that cause humans (via evolution) to often declare actions or outcomes inherently bad.

I don't think evolution has much to do with morality. Moral discourse is a socially driven linguistic behavior, just like legal discourse or fairy tale discourse or ghost discourse. Evolution obviously shaped us so that we could have these discourses vs for examples dogs who can't, but I don't think there's anything like a "moral sense" like there is a sense for seeing (and whether or not there is, this is an empirical question).

My biggest point is that nowhere in this causal chain do we have moral truths.

I don't really see the relevance of causality to truth. There's lots of things people call true that don't interact causally: moral truths, mathematical truths, truths about what's allowed/not allowed in sports, truths about who would win in a fight between fictional characters, and so on.

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Electrical_Humour•

Philosophy isn't in the business of discovering what ordinary people mean when they communicate using language

It absolutely is, the meaning of ordinary moral claims is a massive part of academic meta-ethics. Philosophers simply believe that they are above empirical scrutiny, and can magically divine what everyone thinks about the meaning of moral claims by thinking about what they themselves mean.

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isionousOP•

Philosophy isn't in the business of discovering what ordinary people mean when they communicate using language.

A whole lot of metaethical categories seem be distinguished exactly by this. I found it a bit uninteresting and a bit odd considering humans do not all have the exact same thought process that some of these categories seem to imply.

I don't really see the relevance of causality to truth. There's lots of things people call true that don't interact causally: moral truths, mathematical truths, truths about what's allowed/not allowed in sports, truths about who would win in a fight between fictional characters

You have a causal connection to math truths. The real reason that humans consider 1+1=2 to be both true and useful is that when you put an apple and a banana in an empty bag, the bag then has two fruits in it. Reality has certain patterns (that can be conceptualized as 1+1=2, etc), and we experience those patterns, and via evolution, we have minds that accurately understand those patterns and declare things like 1+1=2.

For what is allowed in sports, that is an empirical question and you definitely interact with it. You would definitely experience different things if you are playing a sport and either follow the agreed upon rules or break them. I suspect you are being too narrow when talking about causal connections/interactions.

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ucatione•

I think any system of morality is going to have to make use of emotivism, consequentialism, and deontology. In fact, if you dissect any system enough, you will find that even if a system of morality claims to be based primarily on only one of these, it smuggles in arguments based on the other two. With that said, I don't have good arguments against emotivism. Also, there is no such thing as a moral truth, because truth is descriptive and morality is prescriptive.

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philbearsubstack•

Frege-Geach problem

2
ishayirashashem•

There is an idea in Judaism is that if the Torah hadn't been given to us, we could still figure out right and wrong by looking at nature.

For example, we could learn to be modest by watching how cats behave. In Tractate Eruvin it says we can learn honesty from ants and kindness from doves.

1
kaa-the-wise•

But isn't it just projection? It seems to me that you need to already understand (and value) modesty to "learn" it from cats instead of learning how to meow and lick yourself.

3
isionousOP•

Yes, how do I know to imitate the modesty of the cat and not the cruelty of cats (and basically every life form)? Seems like I had some pre-existing preferences that I am building upon.

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ishayirashashem•

But isn't it just projection? It seems to me that you need to already understand (and value) modesty to "learn" it from cats instead of learning how to meow and how to lick yourself.

Since this is a forum for aspiring rationalists, and religion is controversial, let's think of it in evolutionary terms: cats and people are different parts of the ecosystem.

People naturally avoid eating mice and catching centipedes in their mouth, need to wear clothes, and have a much smarter brain than cats do. Part of that intelligence is sifting the wheat from the chaff.

I've read an evolutionary psychology argument that people learned what was safe to eat by observing what the local animals ate. How did they know to only copy the food and not try to live like a bear in the woods? That's human intelligence. I suppose some people must have tried to be bears, but they probably didn't survive long without fur.

The mystical Jewish answer, and note that I personally suffer from an allergy to mysticism, but Rebbetzin Fastag would be annoyed at me if I didn't at least put this out there: Adam was able to name the animals because of his being made in the image of G-d. The soul of the cat is modesty, and that is why it was called a cat. The G-dly piece, the soul, was to guide those instincts. Once tasting the knowledge of good and evil, the essence of things was no longer instinctive, hence covering themselves with clothes.

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kaa-the-wise•

Ah, I see. I think I understand what you are saying, but please correct me if I am wrong. It seems that for you the moral law was created by G-d as an intrinsic part of the universe, a bit like laws of physics. And in the same way nature follows laws of physics, it, to some extent, follows the moral law. And so, as we can learn practical things by observing nature, we should be able to learn the moral law as well. Is that right?

It is reasonable as long as you accept the existence of this moral law created by G-d. I don't. I find the Biblical narrative too hubristically human-centred. Ironically, I was taught a bit of humility when raised as a Christian, and it was humility that led me to the rejection of the idea that the world rotates around us.

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ishayirashashem•

Ah, I see. I think I understand what you are saying, but please correct me if I am wrong. It seems that for you the moral law was created by G-d as an intrinsic part of the universe, a bit like laws of physics. And in the same way nature follows laws of physics, it, to some extent, follows the moral law. And so, as we can learn practical things by observing nature, we should be able to learn the moral law as well. Is that right?

Not quite . I would say both physical and moral law are the result of a spiritual dimension. They are only applicable within their realms.

It is a reasonable position, as long as you accept the existence of such moral law created by G-d. I don't. I find the Abrahamic narrative too immodestly human-centred. I was taught a fair bit of humility when raised as a Christian, and, ironically, it was humility that led me to reject the idea that the world revolves around us, humans.

Firstly. It's a pleasure to meet someone, anyone, who has thought about humility. At all.

Secondly: Perhaps I'm not following, but what about religion requires the world to revolve around humans?

2

Have you read Hanno Sauer’s book Moral Thinking Fast and Slow? I recommend it:

“Secondly, there is the sentimentalism/rationalism distinction. To a large extent, empirically informed metaethics still operates within the basic distinction between sentimentalist and rationalist accounts of moral judgment (Prinz 2016). Triple Process Moral Psychology shows that the distinction between sentimentalism and rationalism about moral judgment is outdated. Moral judgment does not depend on emotion or reason – as if that dichotomy ever made much sense to begin with! – but on an integrated network of intuitive, algorithmic, and reflective types of cognitive processing. Affectively neutral and affectively hot processes can, just like automatic and controlled ones, be found across the board.

Thirdly, the Triple Process account of moral judgment and reasoning developed ultimately undermines the distinction between cognitivism and non-cognitivism about moral judgment. Moral cognition is based, not on belief or desire, but on automatic, algorithmic, and reflective cognition. The functional profiles of these states – mind-to-world or world-to-mind direction of fit – are all over the place. Intuitions have propositional content, but are also affectively valenced; critical thinking dispositions define epistemic goals, but are fundamentally in the business of getting at the truth; moral mindware consists of crystallized knowledge structures that implement practical cognitive strategies. From this perspective, the cognitive/non-cognitive distinction seems crude at best and confused at worst. Some of it is affective, some of it is automatic, some of it is conscious. It’s all cognition.

Moral judgment is a largely intuitive enterprise, but that doesn’t make it non-rational, or place it outside of the space of reasons. It becomes part of the space of reasons because of the way moral intuitions are monitored by reflective capacities, overridden by conscious thinking, and shaped by moral mindware. This cooperation of intuition, con- scious processing and critical thinking may seem haphazard and kludgy at times, but it’s what we have to make do with. It is how finite beings reason.”

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fluffykitten55•

One promising line of objection is that by our own experiences, we can realise that certain things are good, and others bad. And then we can get additional results by applying various epistemic principles, i.e. that moral systems cannot be internally inconsistent, by applying the principle of no unwarranted differentiation etc.

This argument is well developed by Neil Sunanbahu, for example here:

https://philarchive.org/rec/SINTEA-3

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isionousOP•

we can get additional results by applying various epistemic principles, i.e. that moral systems cannot be internally inconsistent

I addressed this when I said...

A person who believes in objective moral truths might argue that moral truths and our thoughts on morality have a common cause. For instance, "moral truths can not be self-defeating, and patricide is self-defeating, which causes both for it to be immoral and disfavored by evolution". My reply is "How do you know moral truths can't be self-defeating? What caused that belief?".

Also, there are a lot of ethic systems that are consistent, transitive, etc that you would hate.

I hope to read your links soon.

1