I've caught myself in a contradiction. (Help)
I'm someone who believes in the subjectivity of morality, but yet I can still declare that the stoning of homosexuals/adulteresses/etc. and the massive killings done on behalf of God (Old Testament) is wrong.
Is this because our morals have evolved past the primitive nature some thousands of years ago? And if so, would that still make what happened in Deuteronomy 2:33-34 immoral, or if, being accepted at the time, just based on a different set of valid morals?
Posted Mar 24, 2014, 2:35 AM UTC
You might want to ask in r/debatereligion - you might get some interesting perspectives.
For myself - as a humanist, I broadly define morality as that which a) preserves individual rights and b) advances the cause of humanity as a whole. Based on these principles, God's actions in the OT are clearly immoral. He condemned whole nations to death based on no good evidence. These people were not given trials - no evidence was adduced against them, and no impartial judgement was rendered. God's actions and justifications are little better than that of the Third Reich.
Well then, does that means there is some form of objective morality? Where is that founded? Or can it just be considered the basis for societal morality?
The entire idea behind subjective morality is that the subject (you, in this case) decides what is moral or immoral. As a society, there are many things that the majority agrees are immoral, but it's still up to individuals to decide what is or isn't moral.
r/debatereligion
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