Is Empathy a logical rationalization or an emotional contagion?
I'm working on a research paper regarding empathy, and I've been struggling to understand the definition. Ostensibly, it appears to describe a rationalization of human conditions beyond your own, such as being able to understand logically that someone getting fired will likely feel frustrated, distraught, and possibly angry.
However, if one researches the behavior associated with individuals with empathetic deficits, it appears as though the conception of empathy is not a rationalization but instead an innate emotional "contagion," regarding such things as "naturally feeling sad at the misfortune of others" or "innately feeling joy vicariously through another's positive experience."
There appears to be an incongruence between the technical definition of empathy and the usual behavioral manifestations associated with empathetic deficits. Is there a better way to define the term? Am I making the "sympathy vs. empathy?" mistake?
Posted Feb 2, 2019, 8:44 PM UTC
I would speculate that the reason for the difference is that the formally inflected, definitional language you've mentioned here actually happens within the person expressing it as a different mode of being than the felt sense of empathy. Reading the definition of empathy tends to feel somehow disconnected from what empathy actually seems to be when people describe it in looser and more metaphorical ways because reading the definition is a fundamentally different experience than experiencing empathy directly in the moment.
Who is saying that it's a rationalization? I think a description that would cut much more closely to how it actually seems to be experienced would be an embodied one pointing to the felt sense that you are actually experiencing emotionally and in your body something like what someone around you is also experiencing.
Thank you for your well thought response; it does illuminate the issue at hand quite well.
Most definitions I see (with some exceptions) would permit someone with APD to qualify as "experiencing empathy" because they could theoretically rationalize and comprehend the conditions of others given a certain level of education and external awareness.
For instance, they could be educated on brain development associated with extreme poverty or conversely with extreme wealth and therefore achieve an understanding of the behavior of individuals beyond their own experience without necessarily having vicarious sentiments. In fact this awareness would be necessary to facilitate the Machiavellian social maneuvering that mid to high IQ Antisocials are infamous for.
This contradiction perturbed me (admittedly due to my own lack of understanding); I appreciate your clarification immensely.
It sounds to me like your intuitive understanding of it is exactly correct, and that a lot of the psychological literature on it, while using language with greater precision (as opposed to greater accuracy, if that distinction makes sense) doesn't really grasp it as well as you seem to.
There is some work out there that does comprehend and tries to elaborate on and make verbally specific the distinction you're talking about though. For example: https://lesley.edu/article/the-psychology-of-emotional-and-cognitive-empathy. I feel pretty confident in speculating as well that if you did a search on terms like 'fmri cognitive emotional empathy', it would come up that the kind of empathy you're describing high function ASPD people being capable of would be more forebrain-driven (maybe DLPFC) while emotional empathy would be more related to ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hippocampus activation.
Good source. It addresses the core of the question and even uses the term "emotional contagion."